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2020年普通高等学校招生全国统一考试(全国卷III)
英语
注意事项:
1.答卷前,考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时,选出每小题答案后,用铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动,用橡皮擦干净后,再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时,将答案写在答题卡上,写在本试卷上无效。
3.考试结束后,将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
例:How much is the shirt?
A. £19.15. B. £9.18. C. £9.15.
答案是C。
1. 【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. In a supermarket. B. In the post office. C. In the street.
2.
0
What did Carl do?
A. He designed a medal. B. He fixed a TV set. C. He took a test.
3
0
What does the man do?
A. He’s a tailor. B. He’s a waiter. C. He’s a shop assistant.
4.
0
When will the flight arrive?
A. At 18:20. B. At 18:35. C. At 18:50.
5.
0
How can the man improve his article?
A. By deleting unnecessary words.
B. By adding a couple of points.
C. By correcting grammar mistakes.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。
0
6. What does Bill often do on Friday night?
A. Visit his parents. B. Go to the movies. C. Walk along Broadway.
7. Who watches musical plays most often?
A. Bill. B. Aarah. C. Bill’s parents.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。
0
8. Why does David want to speak to Mike?
A. To invite him to a party.
B. To discuss a schedule.
C. To call off a meeting.
9. What do we know about the speakers?
A. They are colleagues.
B. They are close friends.
C. They’ve never met before.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。
0
10. What kind of camera does the man want?
A. A TV camera.
B. A video camera.
C. A movie camera.
11. Which function is the man most interested in?
A. Underwater filming.
B. A large memory.
C. Auto-focus.
12. How much would the man pay for the second camera?
A. 950 euros.
B. 650 euros.
C. 470 euros.
听下面一段较长对话,回答以下小题。
0
13. Who is Clifford?
A. A little girl.
B. The man’s pet.
C. A fictional character.
14. Who suggested that Norman paint for children’s books?
A. His wife.
B. Elizabeth.
C. A publisher.
15. What is Norman’s story based on?
A. A book.
B. A painting.
C. A young woman.
16. What is it that shocked Norman?
A. His unexpected success.
B. His efforts made in vain.
C. His editor’s disagreement.
听下面一段独白,回答以下小题。【此处可播放相关音频,请去附件查看】
17. Who would like to make small talk according to the speaker?
A. Relatives.
B. Strangers.
C. Visitors.
18. Why do people have small talk?
A. To express opinions.
B. To avoid arguments.
C. To show friendliness.
19. Which of the following is a frequent topic in small talk?
A. Politics.
B. Movies.
C. Salaries.
20. What does the speaker recommend at the end of his lecture?
A. Asking open-ended questions.
B. Feeling free to change topics.
C. Making small talk interesting.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Journey Back in Time with Scholars
Classical Provence(13days)
Journey through the beautiful countryside of Provence,France,with Prof. Ori Z. Soltes. We will visit some of the best-preserved Roman monuments in the world. Our tour also includes a chance to walk in the footsteps of Van Gogh and Gauguin. Fields of flowers, tile-roofed(瓦屋顶)villages and tasty meals enrich this wonderful experience.
Southern Spain(15days)
Spain has lovely white towns and the scent(芳香)of oranges,but it is also a treasury of ancient remains including the cities left by the Greeks,Romans and Arabs. As we travel south from Madrid with Prof. Ronald Messier to historic Toledo,Roman Merida and into Andalucia, we explore historical monuments and architecture.
China’s Sacred Landscapes(21days)
Discover the China of”past ages,its walled cities,temples and mountain scenery with Prof. Robert Thorp. Highlights(精彩之处)include China’s most sacred peaks at Mount Tai and Hangzbou’s rolling hills,waterways and peaceful temples. We will wander in traditional small towns and end our tour with an exceptional museum in Shanghai.
Tunisia(17days)
Join Prof. Pedar Foss on our in-depth Tunisian tour. Tour highlights include the Roman city of Dougga,the underground Numidian capital at Bulla Regia, Roman Sbeitla and the remote areas around Tataouine and Matmata,uique for underground cities. Our journey takes us to picturesque Berber villages and lovely beaches.
21. What can visitors see in both Classical Provence and Southern Spain?
A. Historical monuments. B. Fields of flowers.
C. Van Gogh’s paintings. D. Greek buildings.
22. Which country is Prof. Thorp most knowledgeable about?
A. France. B. Spain. C. China. D. Tunisia.
23. Which of the following highlight the Tunisian tour?
A. White towns. B. Underground cities. C. Tile-roofed villages. D. Rolling hills.
B
When “Rise of the Planet of the Apes” was first shown to the public last month, a group of excited animal activists gathered on Hollywood Boulevard. But they weren’t there to throw red paint on fur-coat-wearing film stars. Instead, one activist, dressed in a full-body monkey suit, had arrived with a sign praising the filmmakers: “Thanks for not using real apes (猿)!”
The creative team behind “Apes” used motion-capture (动作捕捉) technology to create digitalized animals, spending tens of millions of dollars on technology that I records an actor’s performance and later processes it with computer graphics to create a final image (图像). In this case, one of a realistic-looking ape.
Yet “Apes” is more exception than the rule. In fact, Hollywood has been hot on live animals lately. One nonprofit organization, which monitors the treatment or animals in filmed entertainment, is keeping tabs on more than 2,000 productions this year. Already, a number of films, including “Water for Elephants,” “The Hangover Part Ⅱ” and “Zookeeper,” have drawn the anger of activists who say the creatures acting in them haven’t been treated properly.
In some cases, it’s not so much the treatment of the animals on set in the studio that has activists worried; it’s the off-set training and living conditions that are raising concerns. And there are questions about the films made outside the States, which sometimes are not monitored as closely as productions filmed in the Sates.
24. Why did the animal activists gather on Hollywood Boulevard?
A. To see famous film stars.
B. To oppose wearing fur coats.
C. To raise money for animal protection.
D. To express thanks to some filmmakers.
25. What does paragraph 2 mainly talk about?
A. The cost of making “Apes.”
B. The creation of digitalized apes.
C. The publicity about “Apes.”
D. The performance of real apes.
26. What does the underlined phrase “keeping tabs on” in paragraph 3 probably mean?
A. Listing completely.
B. Directing professionally.
C. Promoting successfully.
D. Watching carefully.
27. What can we infer from the last paragraph about animal actors?
A. They may be badly treated.
B. They should take further training.
C. They could be traded illegally
D. They would lose popularity.
C
With the young unable to afford to leave home and the old at risk of isolation(孤独), more families are choosing to live together.
The doorway to peace and quiet, for Nick Bright at least, leads straight to his mother-in-law, she lives on the ground floor, while he lives upstairs with his wife and their two daughters.
Four years ago they all moved into a three-storey Victorian house in Bristol - one of a growing number of multigenerational families in the UK living together under the same roof. They share a front door and a washing machine, but Rita Whitehead has her own kitchen, bathroom, bedroom and living room on the ground floor.
“We floated the idea to my mum of sharing at a house,” says Kathryn Whitehead. Rita cuts in: “We spoke more with Nick because I think it’s a big thing for Nick to live with his mother-in-law.”
And what does Nick think? “From my standpoint it all seems to work very well. Would I recommend it? Yes, I think I would.”
It’s hard to tell exactly how many people agree with him but research indicates that the numbers have been rising for some time. Official reports suggest that the number of households with three generations living together had risen from 325,000 in 2002 to 419,000 in 2013.
Other varieties of multigenerational family are more common. Some people live with their elderly parents; many more adult children are returning to the family home, if they ever left. It is said that about 20% of 25-34-year-olds live with their parents, compared with 16% in 1991.The total number of all multigenerational households in Britain is thought to be about 1.8 million.
Stories like that are more common in parts of the world where multigenerational living is more firmly rooted. In India, particularly outside cities, young women are expected to move in with their husband’s family when they get married.
28. Who mainly uses the ground floor in the Victorian house in Bristol?
A. Nick. B. Rita. C. Kathryn D. The daughters.
29. What is Nick’s attitude towards sharing the house with his mother-in -law?
A. Positive. B. Carefree. C. Tolerant. D. Unwilling.
30. What is the author’s statement about multigenerational family based on?
A. Family traditions. B. Financial reports. C. Published statistics. D. Public opinions.
31. What is the text mainly about?
A. Lifestyles in different countries. B. Conflicts between generations.
C. A housing problem in Britain. D. A rising trend of living in the UK.
D
We are the products of evolution, and not just evolution that occurred billions of years ago. As scientists look
deeper into our genes (基因), they are finding examples of human evolution in just the past few thousand years. People in Ethiopian highlands have adapted to living at high altitudes. Cattle -raising people in East Africa and northern Europe have gained a mutation (突变) that helps them digest milk as adults.
On Thursday in an article published in Cell, a team of researchers reported a new kind of adaptation - not to air or to food, but to the ocean. A group of sea-dwelling people in Southeast Asia have evolved into better divers. The Bajau, as these people are known, number in the hundreds of thousands in Indonesia, Malaysia and the Philippines. They have traditionally lived on houseboats; in recent times, they’ve also built houses on stilts (支柱) in coastal waters. “They are simply a stranger to the land,” said Redney C. Jubilado, a University of Hawaii researcher who studies the Bajau.
Dr. Jubilado first met the Bajau while growing up on Samal Island in the Philippines. They made a living as divers, spearfishing or harvesting shellfish. “We were so amazed that they could stay underwater much longer than us local islanders,” Dr. Jubilado said. “I could see them actually walking under the sea.”
In201, Melissa Ilardo, then a graduate student in genetics at the University of Copenhagen, heard about the Bajau. She wondered if centuries of diving could have led to the evolution of physical characteristics that made the task easier for them. “it seemed like the perfect chance for natural selection to act on a population,” said Dr. Ilardo. She also said there were likely a number of other genes that help the Bajau dive.
32. What does the author want to tell us by the examples in paragraph 1?
A. Environmental adaptation of cattle raisers. B. New knowledge of human evolution.
C Recent findings of human origin. D. Significance of food selection.
33. Where do the Bajau build their houses?
A. In valleys. B. Near rivers. C. On the beach. D. Off the coast.
34. Why was the young Jubilado astonished at the Bajau?
A. They could walk on stilts all day. B. They had a superb way of fishing.
C. They could stay long underwater. D. They lived on both land and water.
35. What can be a suitable title for the text?
A. Bodies Remodeled for a Life at Sea B. Highlanders’ Survival Skills
C. Basic Methods of Genetic Research D. The World’s Best Divers
第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
A housewarming party is a special party to be held when someone buys or moves into a new apartment or house.
The person who bought the house or moved is the one who throws the party. The party is a chance for friends and family to congratulate the person on the new home. ___36___ And it is good time to fill the new space with love and hopeful presents.
___37___ Some people register a list of things they want or need for their new home at a local stores. Some common things people will put on a gift registry include kitchen tools like knives and things like curtains. Even if there isn’t a registry, a good housewarming gift is something to decorate the new house with, like a piece of art or a plant.
___38___ This is often appreciated since at a housewarming there isn’t a lot of food served. There are usually no planned activities like games at a housewarming party. The host or hostess of the party will, however, probably give all the guests a tour of their new home. Sometimes, because a housewarming party happens shortly after a person moves into their new home, people may be asked to help unpack boxes. ___39___
Housewarming parties get their name from the fact that a long time ago people would actually bring firewood to a new home as a gift. ___40___ Now most homes have central heating and don’t use fires to keep warm.
A. This isn’t usual though.
B. It is traditional to bring a gift to a housewarming party.
C. You can also bring food or drinks to share with the other guests.
D. If you’re lucky enough to receive gifts, keep them in a safe place.
E. It also gives people a chance to see what the new home looks like.
F. The best housewarming parties encourage old friends to get together.
G. This was so that the person could keep their home warm for the winter.
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)
第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
As s businesswoman, I care deeply about my customers. But like anyone for whom you feel affection, ___41___ can also drive you mad. They’ll come rushing in, ___42___their handbag’s been stolen. They’ll ___43___ that they left it in the changing room, create havoe (混乱) and then ___44___ it had been in their car all the time. They’ll have out half the ___45___ in the shop, and want the only style you don’t have left in a ___46___ colour. I do know how upset the shop staff can get, but I try to persuade them to keep ___47___.
I remember the first really ___48___ customer we had at Covent Garden. She was ___49___ absolutely everything, nothing was right and I was rather ____50____ that she became a “regular”. After a while, she
____51____ for the way she behaved at the beginning. She had split up with her husband the week before, was living in a flat ____52____, and since she’d found it too much to cope with (应对), she’d taken it out on ____53____ people.
That taught me a valuable ____54____ and I pass it on to the people who ____55____ in the market. Don’t take it ____56____. If a customer is rude or difficult, just think “Maybe she’s had a row with her husband. Maybe her child’s not ____57____.” Always water it down and don’t let your ego (自我) get ____58____. If you do, you won’t be able to ____59____ it and the whole thing develops into an unpleasant scene and that ____60____ everyone’s day.
41. A. shopkeepers B. customers C. salespersons D. receptionists
42. A. saying B. pretending C. guessing D. replying
43. A. agree B. promise C. imagine D. swear
44. A. forget B. decide C. discover D. assume
45. A. foods B. catalogues C. belongings D. goods
46. A. particular B. different C. matching D. natural
47. A. fighting B. smiling C. waiting D. changing
48 A. generous B. polite C. careless D. difficult
49. A. curious about B. displeased with C. patient with D. uncertain about
50. A. relaxed B. delighted C. surprised D. embarrassed
51. A. searched B. argued C. prayed D. apologized
52. A. by chance B. by herself C. on purpose D. on duty
53. A. rude B. such C. other D. lonely
54. A. lesson B. trick C. skill D. trade
55. A. work B. shop C. meet D. quarrel
56. A. kindly B. secretly C. personally D. casually
57. A. ready B. away C. up D. well
58. A. out of sight B. in the way C. behind the scene D. above the law
59. A. stress B. expect C. handle D. blame
60. A. ruins B. makes C. starts D. saves
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
In ancient China lived an artist___61___ paintings were almost lifelike. The artist’s reputation had made him proud. One day the emperor wanted to get his portrait (画像) done so he called all great artists to come and present their ___62___ (fine) work, so that he could choose the best. The artist was sure he would___63___(choose), but when he presented his masterpiece to the emperor’s chief minister, the old nan laughed. The wise old man told him to travel to the Li River~perhaps he could learn a little from the greatest artist in the world.
Filled with ___64___ (curious), the artist packed his bags and left. ___65___ he asked the villagers on the banks of the river where he could find the legendary (传奇的) artist, they smiled and ___66___ (point) down the river. The next morning he hired a boat and set out ___67___ (find) the well-known painter. As the small boat moved, ___68___ (gentle) along the river he was left speechless by the mountains being silently reflected in the water. He passed milky white waterfalls and mountains in many shades of blue. And when he saw the mists rising from the river and the soft clouds___69___ (surround) the mountain tops, he was reduced to tears. The artist was finally humbled (谦卑) by the greatest artist ____70____ earth, Mother Nature.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
71.假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:把多余的词用斜线()划掉。
修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意:1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
2. 只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
My mom is really concerning with the health of everyone in our families. In order to make surely all of us are in good health, and she makes specific plans for us. For example, every morning, my dad has to have the bowl of egg soup while I had to eat an apple. My dad don’t like the soup and I don’t enjoy apples. I tell my mom that if we’re forced eat things, we may become ill.
But he insists on us eating healthy food. Understanding her good intentions, I eat all the food what is provided by Mom with appreciation.
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
72.假定你是李华,你和同学根据英语课文改编了一个短剧。给外教Miss Evans写封邮件,请她帮忙指导。邮件内容包括:
1. 剧情简介;
2. 指导内容;
3. 商定时间地点。
注意:
1. 词数100左右;
2. 结束语已为你写好。
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