重庆市第八中学2019届高考适应性月考卷（三）英语试卷 15页

重庆市第八中学2019届高考适应性月考卷（三）‎ 英语 第一部分　听力(共两节，满分30分)‎ 注意，听力部分答题时，请先将答案标在试卷上。听力部分结束前，你将有两分钟的时间将答案转涂到答题卡上。‎ 第一节　(共5小题；每题1.5分，满分7.5分)‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ ‎1. What are the speakers doing?‎ A. Reading in a library. B. Taking a test. C. Playing a game.‎ ‎ 2. What is the relationship between the speakers? ‎ A. Friends. B. Strangers. C. Fellow workers.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎3. What's the woman's concern?‎ A. The dog might not be friendly.‎ B. The dog might have a disease.‎ C. The dog might prefer living on the street.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎4. How does the man feel? ‎ A. He is worried. B. He is impatient. C. He is apologetic.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎5. What will the woman read first?‎ A. The sports page.‎ B. The international news section.‎ C. The entertainment section.‎ ‎ ‎ 第二节　(共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分)‎ 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有2至4个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将5秒钟的时间阅读各个小题；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。‎ 听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7题。‎ ‎6. How does the woman feel about jazz? ‎ A. It's exciting. B. It's boring. C. It's difficult to understand.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎7. What will the woman do? ‎ A. Offer the man a jazz ticket.‎ B. Talk more about jazz with the man.‎ C. Find someone else to accompany her to a concert.‎ ‎ ‎ 听下面一段对话，回答第8和第9题。‎ ‎8. Why did the man get a bad grade? ‎ A. He didn't read the book.‎ B. He had problems with grammar.‎ C. He wrote the essay too quickly.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎9. What class was the assignment for?‎ A. Literature. B. History. C. Film.‎ ‎ ‎ 听下面一段对话，回答第10至第12题。‎ ‎10. How long does the woman spend in driving each day? ‎ A. One and a half hours in total.‎ B. About two hours in total.‎ C. At least three hours in total.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎11. Why doesn't the woman find a house closer to her job? ‎ A. She'll change jobs soon. B. She loves her present house. C. She can't afford the rent.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎12. What does the man think the woman should do? ‎ A. Take public transportation.‎ B. Do what she enjoys while driving.‎ C. Find more time to see her friends.‎ ‎ ‎ 听下面一段对话，回答第13至第16题。‎ ‎13. What kind of business does the woman own? ‎ A. A small restaurant. B. An Internet café. C. A bookstore.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎14. How did the woman start her small business? ‎ A. With a small business loan.‎ B. With money she got from her father.‎ C. With money she saved from working.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎15. Why won't the bank give the woman a bigger loan? ‎ A. She doesn't have good credit.‎ B. She is borrowing from them for the first time.‎ C. They don't give large loans to business owners.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎16. What will the woman do next? ‎ A. Fill out the application. B. Go to another bank. C. Get help from her community.‎ ‎ ‎ 听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20题。‎ ‎17. What organizations used to have a lot of power? ‎ A. Newspapers and publishers.‎ B. Universities and bookstores.‎ C. Libraries and printing companies.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎18. According to the talk, why do many city people like ebooks?‎ A. They are easier to carry. B. They are cheaper. C. They are better for the eyes.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎19. What kind of “ereaders” do tech companies sell?‎ A. Ones which are hard to understand.‎ B. Ones which are very expensive.‎ C. Ones which contain thousands of books.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎20. What do we know about Borders Group? ‎ A. It was bought by a tech company.‎ B. It had to close all the stores.‎ C. It used to have more than seven hundred stores.‎ 第二部分　阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)‎ ‎　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　　‎ ‎ ‎ 第一节　(共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出最佳选项。‎ A ‎4 Top Tours in Africa This magic, the vast natural landscapes, breathtakingly beautiful flora and fauna of the inhabitants of the continent, easily makes it one of the great safari destinations in the world. Here is a close look at some top tours in Africa.‎ Namibia and Botswana Tour Namibia is surprisingly beautiful while Botswana presents the best of game viewing in private reserves. The combination of these two into a single safari easily sums up a fascinating tour of Southern Africa. While Botswana stands out with its calm reserves that teem(充满) with wildlife, the Chobe River, which is a great location for an African river cruise, is just as thrilling.‎ The Mara Serengeti Tour The Maasai Mara National Reserve in South Western Kenya offers 151，000 hectares of breathtakingly beautiful vistas(远景) and abundant wildlife in endless plains. The great migration that involves some two million wildebeests, zebras, lions every year, happens here! The Serengeti National Park in Tanzania is the other half of the coin that is the Mara Serengeti Ecosystem. Like the Mara, the chances of spotting the Big Five is more real here than in any other location in Africa.‎ Gorilla Trekking Tour in Uganda Bwindi Impenetrable Forest Park in South Western Uganda is home to the remaining mountain gorillas in the world. The 33，000hectare park, a strip of steep mountains enveloped in a bushy and steamy jungle, is one of the most ancient habitats in Africa. It is home to some 120 mammal species and 350 bird species.‎ Cape Town to Tanzania by Train In Africa, you can explore Zambia, Zimbabwe and Tanzania entirely by train. This 22day tour takes you through the best of Southern Africa with the possible sighting of the Big Five, great landscapes and wondrous sites. Some of the highlights of this onceinalifetime tour are the vibrant South African city of Cape Town，the fascinating Table Mountain nearby and a leisure tour of the fascinating Victoria Falls.‎ Africa is full of epic promise. Come on, go ahead and experience any or all of these top tours in Africa.‎ ‎21. Which tour will you choose if you want to have a river cruise?‎ A. Namibia and Botswana Tour. B. Gorilla Trekking Tour in Uganda.‎ C. Cape Town to Tanzania by Train. D. The Mara Serengeti Tour.‎ ‎ 22. Tourists are most likely to spot the Big Five in ________．‎ A. Namibia ‎ B. Cape Town C. the Bwindi Impenetrable Forest Park ‎ D. the Serengeti National Park ‎ ‎ ‎23. What do we know about the 4 top tours in Africa? ‎ A. Bwindi Impenetrable Forest Park is home to the remaining mountain lions.‎ B. The Maasai Mara National Reserve presents the best of game viewing.‎ C. Exploring Zambia, Zimbabwe and Tanzania by train will take 22 days.‎ D. Gorilla Trekking Tour is a leisure tour of the fascinating Victoria Falls.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎24. What is the author's purpose in writing the text?‎ A. To introduce top tours in Africa. B. To help spread African culture.‎ C. To attract more tourists to Africa. D. To promote ecotourism in Africa.‎ ‎ ‎ B ‎“Please, mother, do sit down and let me try my hand，” said Fred, a bright, active boy twelve years old. A look of relief came over his mother's face as she seated herself, who looked pale and worn. Fred washed the dishes, swept the kitchen, and then set out for school. After school, he hurried home, set the table and again washed the dishes.‎ He kept on in this way for several days till his mother was able to resume her usual work and he felt fully rewarded when the doctor, who happened in one day, said, “well, madam, it's my opinion that you would be very sick if you had not kept quiet.”‎ The boys missed Fred because he had been in the habit of going early to school and staying to play after it was dismissed. Their curiosity was excited when he would give no other reason than that he was “wanted at home”．One boy secretly detected Fred washing dishes from his kitchen window and reported this at school and various were the greetings poor Fred received during break. “Well, you are a brave one to stay at home washing dishes.” “Girl boy！” “Pretty Bessie！” “Lost your apron, haven't you, Polly！”‎ Fred was not wanting either in spirit or courage, and he was strongly tempted to resent(对……气愤) these insults and to fight some boys. But his consciousness of right and his love for his mother helped him.‎ While he was struggling for self mastery, his teacher appeared at the door of the schoolhouse. Fred caught his eye, and it seemed to look, if it didn't say, “Don't give up! Be really brave！” He knew his teacher had heard the insulting remarks of his thoughtless schoolmates.‎ The boys received notice during the day that Fred must not be teased in any manner. They knew that the teacher meant what he said.‎ ‎25. How do we understand the doctor's words?‎ A. The mother recovered due to her remaining quiet.‎ B. Encourage more children to learn from Fred.‎ C. The mother was sick because she didn't keep quiet.‎ D. Hope the mother would exercise more than keep quiet.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎26. What does the underlined word “greetings” in Paragraph 3 probably mean?‎ A. Sympathetic remarks. ‎ ‎ B. Admiring remarks.‎ C. Criticisms. ‎ D. Teases.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎27. What do we know about Fred in Paragraph 4?‎ A. Fred's courage enabled him to fight.‎ B. Fred's affection for mother stopped him fighting.‎ C. Fred had neither spirit nor courage to fight.‎ D. Fred's love for mother helped him fight.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎28. Why did the teacher give notice to the thoughtless boys?‎ A. To help free Fred from further trouble.‎ B. To show his preference for Fred.‎ C. To punish the boys for lack of manliness.‎ D. To show his strictness.‎ ‎ ‎ C ‎ We buy because it makes us happy.For some people，if they're feeling blue，shopping will make them happier because it restores some control in their lives.It's making the choice to buy or not to buy that helps people feel more in control.Retail therapy proves to be a useful and practical thing.‎ Doing something we find rewarding lights up the brain's pleasure center，which when activated leads to the release of dopamine(多巴胺)，which makes us feel good.It's why we can even get addicted to the pleasure of buying.Experiments with the brain's dopamine releases in pleasurable situations have found that expectations also kicks them off to leave us in a joyful atmosphere；we experience pleasure，in other words，when we're looking forward to a fun event as well as during and after it.A trip to the mall is also enjoyable in our schedules for the weekend.‎ Pleasure is not the only reason why we buy things we don't need at all.Ryan Howell，an professor of psychology at San Francisco State University said back in our hunter and gatherer days，when people saw something they wanted，they'd grab it，even if they didn't need it，because it was likely they ‎ wouldn't come across that item again.“If you see something that seems to be running in short supply，you're going to get it，” Howell said.These days，such scarcity isn't an issue — we can buy nearly anything we want if we have the means — but we often still approach life like our ancestors did，especially when it comes to a sale.When we see a 50% off clearance price tag，that scarcity impulse kicks into gear，Howell said.The feeling is，if we don't buy that item now，it's going to be gone forever — or at least at that good price.‎ ‎29．What can we learn from the first paragraph?‎ A．People may lose control of life occasionally.‎ B．People tend to be controlled by purchasing desire.‎ C．Purchase can comfort people when they are upset.‎ D．The concept of retail therapy was once a false idea.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎30．What does the underlined word “them” in Paragraph 2 refer to?‎ A．Experiments. B．Expectations.‎ C．Dopamine releases. D．Pleasurable situations.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎31．What can we infer according to the last paragraph? ‎ A．A good bargain is unmissable.‎ B．Our ancestors grabbed things for survival. ‎ C．We should watch out for the trap of the sale.‎ D．Our ancestors had similar attitude with us to things wanted.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎32．What is the best title for the text?‎ A．Why We Buy Things ‎ B．To Purchase As You Wish C．The Approach to Happiness D．The Relaxation in Modern Life ‎ ‎ ‎ D ‎“Give us back our stolen hour！” Britons demanded as they objected to the introduction of Daylight ‎ Saving Time(DST) in 1916. The idea of setting the clocks to move an hour of daylight from the morning to the evening during summer has been controversial throughout its history. People have argued that the practice saves energy, reduces crime, and prevents traffic accidents. Others are not so convinced, and studies conducted over the past decade have shown mixed results.‎ The idea was first put into operation in Germany during World War I(19141918) in an attempt to reduce coal supply during wartime. Britain soon followed with its own Summer Time but so did confusion and chaos, with some institutions following the changes and some simply ignoring them. One writer felt angry at the laws in a more poetic manner, expressing his dislike for being forced to favor the sun over the moon.‎ Despite the early controversy, 82 countries currently use DST. The United States moves its clocks forward an hour at 2 a．m. on the second Sunday in March and back an hour on the first Sunday in November. Some states, however, still do not apply DST, and in the past even some areas within individual states refused to observe DST while the rest of the state did.‎ It was originally thought that DST would reduce energy consumption as people would use less electric lighting in the evening due to the increased hours of daylight. However, recent studies have suggested that this benefit has been canceled out by the increased use of home air conditioners, which people use for longer on long summer evenings.‎ Brighter evenings have reduced the number of traffic accidents in countries which observe DST, but studies have also noticed a spike(剧增) in the number of accidents during the week after the clocks change, possibly due to the sudden interruption of people's sleeping patterns.‎ One certain good thing to come out of DST, however, happened in 1999, when a group of West Bank terrorists(on DST) delivered bombs to a cell in Israel(not on DST) but ignored the time difference when setting the timers for their bombs. The bombs went off one hour earlier than planned, killing three terrorists instead of the intended civilians.‎ ‎33. Which of the following statements about DST is TRUE?‎ A. It was introduced from Germany to Britain after World War I.‎ B. It can help save energy and reduce traffic accidents.‎ C. It forces people to appreciate the sun more than the moon.‎ D. It probably affects people's sleeping patterns.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎34. Terrorists should have set the bomb timers at ________(West Bank Time) for an 8：00 pm explosion in Israel.‎ A. 7：00 am B. 7：00 pm C. 8：00 pm D. 9：00 pm ‎ ‎ ‎35. This passage can best be described as ________．‎ A. an advertisement B. an annual report C. an informative essay D. a persuasive writing ‎ ‎ 第二节　(共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。‎ Having a healthy family life can lower risk of heart attack and boost your chance of living longer. __36__．‎ Care for elders in a loving way Caring for an elderly loved one is a wonderful way to show compassion and service, and it doesn't mean you have to sacrifice everything. __37__. Kids and marriages can be powerfully impacted by how these decisions are handled，both negatively and positively.They thoroughly think through the potential impact of moving an aging parent into the home or providing extended care. A good boundary with an aging parent is to do occasional outgoings.‎ Cultivate an attitude of gratitude Healthy families set a culture of being grateful for the things you appreciate in life, big and small. Set up a respectful space where at the end of each day, each family member share what they are grateful for. __38__．‎ Keep treats out of sight(and out of mind)‎ What you see is what you want to eat. __39__. Put the sugary treats out of sight and leave colorful fruits and vegetables out on the counter or on the most visible shelves in the fridge so that you're more likely to reach for a nutritious snack.‎ ‎__40__‎ Healthy families will create a safe environment for healthy communication, where each individual feels like their feelings are acknowledged. When conflict arises, they don't have to agree with each other but they still need to acknowledge each other's feelings. They still feel their opinions are ‎ valued. They also learn tools for how conflicts can be resolved. No one shuts down, or runs away when there is disagreement. They work it out.‎ A. Fight fair B. Live healthily C. Keep healthy snacks highly visible in your kitchen D. If you keep fighting，you will hurt your family E. Here's how to maximize these amazing habits F. This sets up an atmosphere of appreciation that all can benefit from G. Healthy families have boundaries with aging parents and grandparents 第三部分　语言知识运用(共两节，满分45分)‎ 第一节　(共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分)‎ 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。‎ Every year, as soon as Halloween is over, our son Matthew waits for the lights. He's been doing it for more than a dozen __41__. As the days grow shorter and the nights longer, as the temperatures __42__ and the leaves fall, he waits for the __43__.‎ The neighbors across the street always put up a __44__ and brilliant light display for the holidays and Matthew loves to wait for them to be turned on, which usually __45__ right after Thanksgiving.__46__ he begins his monitoring a month before their arrival. And then, each day between Thanksgiving and __47__ the lights are turned off, he waits, __48__， from midafternoon on.‎ And when each evening's moment comes, you don't have to be with __49__. You know it no matter where you are in the house. The rhythmic __50__. The dancing around the house. Pure __51__ on his face! And it happens every single night.‎ Despite all his __52__， in the world's view — his severe mental disabilities, his twoyearold __53__ in a twentythreeyearold body, his inability to speak — Matthew knows __54__ very profound, that light will shine in the darkness, that no matter how dark, how long the __55__ eventually, and without __56__， those lights will shine again. No matter how many seasons of the year without them, there will come a season when those lights will shine again.‎ Life __57__ its own seasons of darkness，desperate, lonely, __58__ and full of fear at times. __59__those seasons, a new season can come and the light can be seen again. Whatever __60__ I find within and around me, I look to my son, and remember that a light can break the darkness.‎ ‎41. A. hours B. seconds C．decades D. years ‎42．A. rise B. change C. drop D. stay ‎43. A. lights B. neighbors C. tricks D. holidays ‎44. A. tasteful B. beautiful C. strong D. strange ‎45. A. happens B. tests C. obtains D. delivers ‎46. A. Instead B. Then C. Therefore D. However ‎47. A. unless B. until C. after D. since ‎48. A. nervously B. impatiently C. excitedly D. quietly ‎49. A．it B. her C. one D. him ‎50. A. poems B. excitement C. fighting D. clapping ‎51. A. surprise B. sadness C. glory D. delight ‎52. A. limitations B. advantages C. characters D. beliefs ‎53. A. brother B. sister C. mind D. memory ‎54. A. nothing B. something C. everything D. anything ‎55. A. holiday B. display C. street D. wait ‎56. A. fail B. pity C. stop D. plan ‎57. A. receives B. proves C. supports D. brings ‎58. A. satisfying B. unwilling C. painful D. peaceful ‎59. A. In spite of B. Thanks to C. Regardless of D. As to ‎60. A. happiness B. darkness C. sympathy D. warmth 第二节　(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)‎ 阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ The best way to get around a city may be driving a car. Indeed, it could be of little __61__(convenient) for you to travel from one point to another if you don't own a car. While you can always use public transport, it can be quite unreliable sometimes. But don't worry. There are car rental companies that can help you with your traveling needs at anytime. If you are planning on a ‎ vacation during a major holiday like Christmas, __62__(consider) hiring a car for you and your family's use. The obvious __63__(benefit) of doing so are as follows：‎ Some rental companies even include a driver with every car rented. Imagine yourself with a driver taking you to your destination __64__ waiting to drive you back home. In this way, even parking __65__(become) the least of your concerns.‎ Even if you have to drive the car by yourself, you can benefit from hiring a car because you can take the shortest route __66__(enjoyable) to your destination. If you have planned your holiday in __67__ hurry, you might have missed __68__(check) on your car's condition. If this is the case, it is wise to rent a car because it will not break down __69__ your way at all.‎ Traveling in your own car is a lot __70__(comfortable), to be frank, than riding the train or bus. You can stop at anytime if you need to grab something.‎ 第四部分　写作(共两节，满分35分)‎ 第一节　短文改错(共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分)‎ 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。‎ 增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧)，并在其下面写出该加的词。‎ 删除：把多余的词用斜线()划掉。‎ 修改：在错的词下画一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。‎ 注意：1. 每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；‎ ‎2. 只允许修改10处，多者(从第11处起)不计分。‎ My husband and I traveled to England this summer to see his mother and stay for six months. My motherinlaw had a dog which named Tassie. It was Mike and I who would took him for walks along a small path every day.‎ One day, therefore, it was pouring with rain. Despite of the bad weather, the dog sat eagerly at the door waiting for us to take him out for his usually walk. I looked at him and said: “I'm not going out in such weather.” Tassie ran down the hallway immediately but came back with one of my Wellington boot. He wagged his tail and dropped them on my foot. My husband burst out laugh. Did we go for the walk? Of course we did!‎ ‎ ‎ 第二节　书面表达(满分25分)‎ 假定你是李华，你和家人于2018年11月25号在国外某餐厅就餐，用餐体验却很不愉快，请你用英文向该餐厅经理投诉，内容如下：‎ ‎1．写信目的；‎ ‎2．投诉内容；‎ ‎3．处理要求。‎ 注意：1.词数100左右；‎ ‎2．开头与结尾已给出，不计入总词数；‎ ‎3．可适当增加细节，使行文连贯。‎ Dear Sir,‎ ‎________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎________________________________________________________________________‎ Yours faithfully，‎ Li Hua 参考答案 听力：BBBAB;ACBAC;CBCBB;AAACB 阅读A篇：ADCC，B篇：ADBA,C篇：ACCDA,D篇:DDC 七选五:EGFCA 完型填空:DCABA,DBCDD,DACBD,ADCAB 短文填空convenience,consider,benefits,and,becomes,enjoyably,a,checking,more comfortable 短文改错:stay改-ed,named前加was ,took改成take,therefore改成however,Despite 后of去掉，usually 改成usual,but改成and,boot改成boots,them改成it,laugh改成-ing 作文：第五档（很好）：（21~25分） 1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。 2.覆盖所有内容要点。 3.应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。 4.语法结构或词汇方面有些许错误，但为尽力使用较复杂结构或较高级词汇所致；具备较强的语言运用能力。 5.有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 6.完全达到了预期的写作目的。 第四档（好）：（16~20分） 1.完全完成了试题规定的任务。 2.虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容。 3.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 4.语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。 5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 6.达到了预期的写作目的。 第三档（适当）：（11~15分） 1.基本完成了试题规定的任务。 2.虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 3.应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 5.应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 6.整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。 第二档（较差）：（6-10分） 1.未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 2.漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 3.语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。 4.有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。 5.较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。 6.信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 第一档（差）：（1~5分） 1.未完成试题规定的任务。 2.明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。 3.语法结构单调、词汇项目有限。 4.较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。 5.缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 6.信息未能传达给读者。‎