2019-2020学年山东泰安肥城市高二上学期期中考试英语试题 Word版 18页

高 二 英 语 试 题 本试卷共12页。满分150分，考试用时120分钟。考试结束，将答题卡交回。‎ 注意事项：‎ ‎ 1. 答题前，考生务必用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将自己的姓名、座号、考生号填写在答题卡和试卷规定的位置上。‎ ‎ 2. 选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。‎ ‎ 3. 非选择题必须用0.5毫米黑色签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应的位置，不能写在试卷上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不能使用涂改液、胶带纸、修正带。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。‎ 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）‎ 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分, 满分7.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ ‎1. What does the woman suggest doing this weekend?‎ A. Staying at home. B. Visiting a museum. ‎ C. Reading books about Picasso.‎ ‎2. Why did the man give up his job?‎ A. He was not interested in it. ‎ B. The manager asked him to leave. ‎ C. It was a long way from his home. ‎ ‎3. What are the speakers mainly talking about?‎ A. A passage. B. Difficult sentences. C. The woman’s new ideas.‎ ‎4. How did the woman get her party dress?‎ A. She made it by herself. B. She bought it in a store. ‎ C. She borrowed it from others. ‎ ‎5. What does the woman think of the professor’s speech?‎ A. Easy. B. Confusing. C. Interesting. ‎ 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。‎ 听下面一段对话，回答第6和第7两个小题。‎ ‎6. When is Tom leaving for London?‎ A. On July 10th. B. On July 12th. C. On July 15th. ‎ ‎7. How will Tom go to the airport?‎ A. By bus. B. By car. C. By taxi.‎ 听下面一段对话，回答第8和第9两个小题。‎ ‎8. What was held on Friday afternoon?‎ A. A volleyball game. B. A basketball game. C. A football game. ‎ ‎9. Why did the man run along the country road?‎ A. To keep fit. B. To enjoy the scenery. ‎ C. To know the other people. ‎ 听下面一段对话，回答第10至第12三个小题。‎ ‎10. What’s the probable relationship between the speakers?‎ A. Friends. B. Mother and son. C. Policeman and driver.‎ ‎11. Why did Jason get a ticket?‎ A. He drove too fast. B. He ran through a red light. ‎ C. He stopped on the double yellow line. ‎ ‎12. What bothered Jason?‎ A. His shopping list. B. His mother’s illness. C. His driving skill. ‎ 听下面一段对话，回答第13至第16四个小题。‎ ‎13. Who is the man?‎ A. A business traveler. B. A tour guide. C. A hotel clerk. ‎ ‎14. What is the most important thing to business travelers?‎ A. Quick check-in and check-out. B. Good room service. ‎ C. Nice transportation. ‎ ‎15. Where do business travelers tend to eat their meals?‎ A. In their rooms. B. At restaurants. C. At the bars. ‎ ‎16. What does the hotel provide for free?‎ A. Meeting rooms. B. A bus to the city center. ‎ C. Airport pick-up service. ‎ 听下面一段独白，回答第17至第20四个小题。‎ ‎17. Which room is the speaker in?‎ A. Room 204. B. Room 307. C. Room 405. ‎ ‎18. Where should the students put all their belongings?‎ A. In the lockers. B. In the front of the testing room. ‎ C. On the chairs outside the testing room. ‎ ‎19. What must the students do if they want to use the restroom?‎ A. Go with a monitor. B. Wait to be called. ‎ C. Ask for permission. ‎ ‎20. What do we know about the students?‎ A. They should go to Room 204 for the GRE test. ‎ B. They can’t wear their coats in the testing room. ‎ C. They can use their own pens, paper and pencils. ‎ 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分 50分） ‎ 第一节（共16小题；每小题2.5分，满分40分）‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 ‎ A We’ve got a list of teen scientists from a variety of fields.‎ Jack Andraka Jack Andraka created a biosensor for cancer that he says is 168 times faster, 26, 667 times less expensive and 400 times more sensitive than technology nowadays.‎ He’s the youngest person to have spoken in front of the Royal Society of Medicine.‎ Taylor Wilson Taylor Wilson was the youngest person to achieve nuclear fusion (核聚变). He was inspired by The Radioactive Boy Scout, a novel in which a kid tries and fails to build a nuclear reactor.‎ Taylor thought he could do better. Long story short, he wanted to build a small nuclear reactor. And he did it at the age of fourteen. He received a Thiel Fellowship, which gave him ‎ $100,000 to work on his own research.‎ Sara Volz Sara Volz performed experiments in which she grew algae based on their oil output for the purpose of growing them as biofuel (生物燃料). This research is especially important as the world continues to search for a way to lessen our dependence on non-renewable energy. She won the top prize of S100,000 in the Intel Science Talent Search.‎ Daniel Burd Plastic usually takes thousands of years to decompose (降解), but this high school student Daniel Burd managed to do it in three months.‎ In an experiment, he mixed plastic bags and a special kind of dirt together, and found that they did decompose faster. He then performed tests to find the bacteria responsible for decomposing the plastics.‎ His solution only produces water and small amounts of carbon dioxide. He says it could easily be used elsewhere.‎ ‎21. Who designed a medical instrument?‎ A. Sara Volz. B. Daniel Burd. C. Jack Andraka. D. Taylor Wilson.‎ ‎22. What excited Taylor Wilson’s interest in his invention?‎ A. A novel by a kid. B. Plastic pollution. ‎ C. Energy shortage. D. A story book.‎ ‎23. What do we know about Daniel Burd’s invention?‎ A. It won him a $100,000 prize.‎ B. It is environmentally friendly.‎ C. It was completed in three months.‎ D. It is widely used in everyday waste.‎ ‎24. Where is the text probably taken from? A. A guidebook. B. A magazine. C. An advertisement. D. A dictionary. ‎ B One Saturday afternoon, I went to a fast food restaurant to have some food with my kids. As we were walking into the restaurant, I noticed a woman smoking a cigarette outside. While we were waiting in line, with about ten other people, we saw the woman rush back into the store to help the busy staff.‎ A customer standing next to us started yelling at the employee who had begun filling brown paper bags with fries, burgers, and nuggets, “I saw you,” she said. “I saw you out there smoking; then you came in straight and touched our food! It’s disgusting! Why would you do that?” The woman wouldn’t stop. Everyone was staring. The employee was getting teary. It looked as if she just wanted to find a place to hide. The manager came over and told her to wash her hands and leave the floor for a while. He then apologized to the customer.‎ ‎“That’s disgusting,” my oldest son whispered to me, “But I do feel bad for her.” I was glad he followed it up with that last sentence. His comment showed me that he’d probably never treat someone the way that customer had treated that employee.‎ You are allowed to be angry at others’ improper behavior and tell them how you feel. However, you don’t need some audience or witnesses when you are making negative comments on others. Doing that in public doesn’t strengthen your point.‎ I’m willing to bet that the woman being criticized was so shamed that she wasn’t able to hear the message that was being forced down her throat. However, had the customer taken her aside, and said in a quiet voice, “I noticed you didn’t wash your hands after your smoke break; can you please go to do that now?” The employee would have had the opportunity to do just that. The message the customer wanted to convey would have gotten to that employee more effectively, and her entire day would not have been ruined.‎ ‎25. Why was the customer so angry?‎ A. The employee smoked in front of her.‎ B. She was yelled at by people around her.‎ C. She had to wait in a long line for her food.‎ D. The employee touched food without washing hands.‎ ‎26. How did the employee respond after hearing the customer’s words?‎ A. She felt confused and annoyed.‎ B. She turned to her manager for help.‎ C. She was very sad and embarrassed.‎ D. She dealt with the problem calmly.‎ ‎27. The comments of the author’s oldest son indicated that he .‎ A. had sympathy for the employee B. supported the customer’s behavior C. cared little about the employee’s action D. had experienced the situation many times ‎28. What does the author mainly want to convey?‎ A. We should treat every person equally.‎ B. We should always mind our behavior.‎ C. We should admit our mistakes bravely.‎ D. We should avoid criticizing someone in public.‎ C A city in South Korea, which has the world’s highest smartphone usage rate, has placed flashing lights at a road crossing to warn “smartphone zombies” (低头族) to look up and drivers to slow down, in the hope of preventing accidents.‎ The designers of the system were motivated by growing worry that more pedestrians (行人) addicted to their phones will become victims in a country that already has some of the highest injury rates among developed countries.‎ State-run Korea Institute of Civil Engining and Building Technology believed its system of flashing lights at crossings can warn both pedestrians and drivers.‎ In addition to red, yellow and blue LED lights on the road, “smartphone zombies” will be warned by flashing lights and a warning sent to the phones by an app that they are about to step into traffic.‎ ‎“Increasing numbers of accidents are happening at pedestrian crossings, so these lights are needed to prevent these pedestrian accidents,” said KICT senior researcher Kim Jong-hoon.‎ South Korea has the world’s highest smartphone usage rate, according to Pew Research Center, with about 94 percent of adults owning smartphones in 2017, compared with 77 percent in the United States and 59 percent in Japan.‎ For now, the warning system is set up only in Ilsan, a city about 30 km northwest of the capital, Seoul, but is expected to go nationwide, according to the institute.‎ Kim Dan-hee, a 23-year-old citizen of Ilsan, welcomed the system, saying she was often too absorbed in her phone to remember to look at traffic. “This flashing light makes me feel safe as it makes me look around again, and I hope that we can have more of these in town,” she said.‎ ‎29. What is the purpose of South Korea’s new warning system?‎ A. To prevent pedestrian accidents. B. To limit the use of phones.‎ ‎ C. To remind pedestrians to look around. D. To ensure drivers’ safety.‎ ‎30. How does the writer introduce the high smartphone usage rate of South Korea?‎ ‎ A. By describing a scene. B. By making comparison.‎ ‎ C. By explaining a subject. D. By raising a question.‎ ‎31. What’s Kim Dan-hee’s attitude to the new warning system?‎ ‎ A. Supportive. B. Indifferent. C. Objective. D. Doubtful.‎ ‎32. What is the best title for the text?‎ ‎ A. Flashing lights at the crossing in different countries.‎ ‎ B. Watching out for safety while crossing the road.‎ ‎ C. South Korea ranking the world’s highest phone usage rate.‎ ‎ D. New warning system to prevent accidents in South Korea.‎ D If you watched TV in the 1980s, you probably remember the Head &Shoulders advertisement warning, “You never get a second chance to make a first impression.”‎ Now new research suggests that this isn’t totally true. For a paper called “The Tipping Point of Moral Change: When Do Good and Bad Acts Make Good and Bad Actors? ” published in Social Cognition, Nadav Klein and Ed O’ Brien, psychological scientists at the University of Chicago, ran several experiments designed to discover how quickly people are willing to change impressions.‎ In one online study of 201 participants, an office worker known as “Barbara” started off, but occasionally committed (做) a series of positive or negative actions. Sometimes she held doors for people. Other times she would cut in line. Subjects answered how long such behavior had to go on for their view of Barbara to tip in various directions.‎ The result? Barbara had to do nice things for more weeks to become regarded as a good person than the number of weeks she had to do bad things to become bad. Another online experiment involving 200 female participants also found that people were quick to judge when Barbara was doing wrong and much slower to believe she’d changed for the better.‎ ‎“People only need to commit just a few bad actions to appear greatly changed for the worse, but need to commit many good actions to appear greatly changed for the better,” the authors write.‎ If you’ve made a good first impression on a group of people, don’t get too comfortable. Flub something, and they’ll quickly change their impression for the worse. But if you made a ‎ bad first impression? Then the Head & Shoulders advertisement is on to something because, as Heather Huhman, president of Come Recommended, puts it, “People are always quick to judge, and we like our opinions—we don’t like to change our minds.”‎ ‎“It is difficult to change a bad first impression, but not impossible. Don’t try to force new relationships. Let relationships develop naturally and don’t do things just to make people like you. Be yourself, ” Huhman advises.‎ ‎33. What did the Head & Shoulders advertisement show?‎ A. First impressions are lasting.‎ B. First impressions are not reliable.‎ C. First impressions can work wonders.‎ D. First impressions are the most natural.‎ ‎34. What are the findings of the studies?‎ A. People are quick to judge.‎ B. It takes more time to become bad.‎ C. It’s hard to change bad impressions.‎ D. People always focus on bad actions.‎ ‎35. What does the underlined part “Flub something” in Paragraph 6 refer to?‎ A. Show something. B. Do something bad.‎ C. Try something new. D. Keep on doing something.‎ ‎36. What’s Huhman’s advice?‎ A. Be the real you. B. Make people like you.‎ C. Create a good impression. D. Ignore people’s judgements.‎ 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。 ‎ Heart disease is the leading cause of disability and death worldwide. 37 With that in mind, if you knew that you could help keep your heart healthy by eating just a little bit less every day— about six standard-size Oreos’ worth of calories—would you?‎ ‎ Researchers have found evidence that just a modest reduction in our daily caloric intake (摄入) could have protective benefits for our hearts. They drew on data from the Long term Effects of Reducing Intake of Energy (ERIE) study. According to the study, the experiment began with ‎ 218 participants, all of whom were normal weight or just slightly overweight and between the ages of 21 and 50. Researchers started 143 participants on a diet that reduced their caloric intake by 25%. 38 . In the end, 188 participants completed the study—117 with caloric restriction and 71 without. Over two years, people in the calorie-cutting group reduced their caloric intake by an average of about 12%.‎ ‎ 39 . They lost about 16.5 pounds on average and saw improvements, including lowered cholesterol (胆固醇) and blood pressure, on all six primary factors associated with risks to heart health. “We expected there to be some improvement on cardiometabolic (心血管代谢) factors,” says William Kraus, the study’s lead author. “ 40 .”‎ ‎ Though the weight loss was relatively impressive, it wasn’t responsible for a majority of the heart benefits. After conducting further analysis, researchers determined that caloric restriction can have health benefits above and beyond those normally associated with weight loss. “ 41 .”‎ A. We need to do exercise to benefit heart.‎ B. The others were assigned to a normal diet.‎ C. It can hold back negative effects of aging.‎ D. But we didn’t expect the degree of improvement we saw.‎ E. About 2,200 people in the U.S. die per day due to heart problems.‎ F. The experiment was carried out by comparing two different groups.‎ G. This reduction in calories had significant effects on the participants who ate less.‎ 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分） ‎ 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分, 满分15分）‎ 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ I was very fortunate to be chosen by Kindspring to receive $100 for the monthly kindness competition. This past October I 42 some Inspiration Trees and they have helped to make a 43 in people’s lives.‎ The idea is simple. I took a lot of fallen branches that I had been 44 on walks and hung them from the ceiling with the help of volunteers and friends. Then we 45 strings with pins (大头针) attached to them from the branches. I got a lot of art supplies and as people came in for the art exhibit, they were 46 to create a piece of art or a 47 message to ‎ hang from the branches.‎ The tree changed into this really funny way of 48 positive messages. If you hung a message up, you had to take one down for you to 49 . The experience was really 50 . People of all ages and from all walks of life were sharing art and inspiration through the 51 .‎ With the $100 I 52 from Kindspring, I made more Inspiration Trees. I’m 53 them all over our community, such as classrooms and youth shelters for homeless teens. The act is to create communication that is positive and can 54 people’s lives by just doing a 55 act of kindness. The message people receive can be kept with them as a reminder of the 56 in the world.‎ ‎42. A. showed B. bought C. found D. made ‎43. A. difference B. mark C. rule D. promise ‎44. A. counting B. collecting C. accepting D. placing ‎45. A. hung B. bought C. removed D. threw ‎46. A. ordered B. allowed C. encouraged D. chosen ‎47. A. short B. hidden C. positive D. important ‎48. A. carrying B. sending C. leaving D. exchanging ‎49. A. remember B. keep C. deliver D. rewrite ‎50. A. amazing B. strange C. direct D. painful ‎51. A. room B. tree C. card D. pen ‎52. A. raised B. earned C. borrowed D. received ‎53. A. running B. organizing C. putting D. storing ‎54. A. limit B. expand C. influence D. replace ‎ ‎55. A. private B. simple C. creative D. brave ‎56. A. good B. honesty C. politeness D. richness 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）‎ 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ We are all aware of the threats our planet is facing. Experts agree that it’s mainly humans 57 are responsible for the destruction of the environment. Activities such as mass farming and burning   58 (harm) our climate now—and we are suffering too through natural ‎ ‎59  (disaster) such as flooding and droughts.‎ One of the most destructive activities we are carrying out is deforestation (砍伐森林). This has been most noticeable in Brazil, which is home to the world’s 60 (large) rainforest. Deforestation there 61 (hit) its highest rate in the past decade, according to official data. The result of widespread deforestation has threatened 62 centuries-old way of life. The future of the rainforest could be 63 danger of being damaged.‎ The amount of deforestation in the Amazon has 64 (actual) seen a decline but the figures are still large. Brazil has taken some steps to try and decrease deforestation by 65 (introduce) government policies including fines for breaking land use regulations. While humans are largely 66 (blame) for the destruction of the rainforest, it seems only humans will tackle this problem and save planet Earth.‎ 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）‎ 第一节 应用文写作 （满分15分）‎ 假定你是李华，留学生sophia发来邮件说她下个月参加普通话水平测试 (Putonghua Proficiency Test)，希望你能给予辅导。请用英语给她回一封邮件，内容包括:‎ ‎1. 说明意愿；‎ ‎2. 说明辅导安排（时间，内容等）。‎ 注意: 1. 词数80左右；‎ ‎2. 可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。‎ 第二节 读后续写（满分25分）‎ 阅读下面短文，根据所给情节进行续写，使之构成一个完整的故事。‎ Gold and brown leaves crunched (嘎吱响) under Dora’s boots as she made her way down the sidewalk. She couldn’t wait to be home. The autumn cold wind was bad, but it was not nearly as hard to bear as the cold she felt in her heart.‎ She couldn’t forget the way she had frozen in front of the class today. Mr. Roberts divided the class into groups to do presentations. Each person in the group would speak for five minutes in front of the class. Today was Dora’s turn. Her legs trembled all the way to the front of the classroom. Her hands shook so badly that she couldn’t read her notes. As Dora spoke, her voice became softer. Mr. Roberts kindly ended Dora’s part of the presentation even though she had clearly not finished. He also asked Dora to stay for a moment after class.‎ ‎“Dora, I know you’re shy, but you worked hard on this project. I’d hate to see you give up on yourself.” Mr. Roberts suggested, “If I give you another chance tomorrow, do you think you can find your courage?”‎ Dora nodded. She went as quickly as she could to her next class. She kept her head down and hoped the school day would end soon.‎ Arriving home, she found Mom baking in the kitchen. When Mom baked, Dora always watched and chatted with her. Mom always said it was Dora’s company that made her baked goods taste so sweet. Mom studied Dora’s face as she came into the kitchen. “What’s wrong, Dora?”‎ Tears shone in Dora’s eyes. She told the whole story. Mom was silent for a moment. “Why is it that you can talk to me about anything and everything, but you can’t talk to your classmates?” Mom asked, sliding the round cake pans into the oven. She set the timer and then said, “Let me show you something.”‎ 注意：‎ ‎1. 所续写短文的词数应为150词左右；‎ ‎2. 至少使用5个短文中标有下划线的关键词语；‎ ‎3. 续写部分分为两段，每段的开头语已为你写好；‎ ‎4. 续写完成后，请用下划线标出你所使用的关键词语。‎ Paragraph 1:‎ ‎ Dora followed Mom to her room. ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ Paragraph 2:‎ ‎ The next day Dora again walked to the front of the classroom to give her presentation. ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ 高二英语试题参考答案及评分标准 ‎ ‎ 第一部分 听力（共20小题；每小题1.5分, 满分30分）‎ ‎1—5 BCABC 6—10 CBCAA 11—15 CBCAA 16—20 BCACB 第二部分 阅读理解（共21小题；满分50分）‎ 第一节 （共16小题；每小题2.5分，满分40分）‎ ‎21—24 CDBB 25—28 DCAD 29—32 ABAD 33—36 ACBA 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）‎ ‎37—41 EBGDC 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）‎ 第一节 完形填空（共15小题；每小题1分, 满分15分）‎ ‎42—46 DABAC 47—51 CDBAB 52—56 DCCBA 第二节 语法填空 (共10小题; 每小题1.5分，满分15分)‎ ‎57. who/that 58. are harming 59. disasters 60. largest 61. has hit ‎ ‎62. the 63. in 64. actually 65. introducing 66. to blame 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）‎ 第一节 应用文写作 (满分15分)‎ 评分原则：‎ ‎1. 本题总分为15分，按三个档次给分。‎ ‎2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量确定或调整档次，最后给分。‎ ‎3. 评分时应考虑：内容是否完整，条理是否清楚，交际是否得体，语言是否准确。 ‎ ‎4．拼写、标点符号或书写影响内容表达时，应视其影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。‎ ‎5．词数少于70，从总分中减去2分。‎ 第三档（11-15分）‎ 完全完成了试题规定的任务。‎ ‎·内容完整，条理清楚；‎ ‎·交际得体，表达时充分考虑到了交际的需求；体现出较强的语言运用能力。‎ 完全达到了预期的写作目的。‎ 第二档（6-10分）‎ 基本完成了试题规定的任务。‎ ‎·内容、条理和交际等方面基本符合要求；‎ ‎·所用语法和词汇满足了任务的要求；‎ ‎·语法和用词方面有一些错误，但不影响理解。‎ 基本达到了预期的写作目的。‎ 第一档（1-5分）‎ 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。‎ ‎·内容不完整；‎ ‎·所用词汇有限，语法或用词方面的错误影响了对所写内容的理解。‎ 未能清楚地传达信息。‎ ‎0分 未能传达任何信息；写的内容与要求无关。‎ 第二节 读后续写 (满分25分)‎ One possible version:‎ Paragraph1:‎ ‎ Dora followed Mom to her room. There was a box at the foot of the bed. Mom dug around for a minute and pulled out a blue ribbon that said “First Place.” “I won it for public speaking. I started the school year as the shyest girl on the speech team, but I ended the year as the blue ribbon winner. It wasn’t easy because I was a very timid girl. But I worked hard, and mostly I overcame my fears. You just need to find your courage.” At that time, Dora seemed to know what she should do tomorrow.‎ Paragraph 2:‎ The next day Dora again walked to the front of the classroom to give her presentation. She could feel herself becoming nervous once again. Earlier that morning before school, Dora had borrowed Mom’s blue ribbon for encouragement and folded it into her front pocket to take with her. As Dora faced the class, preparing to speak, she thought of the supportive words Mom said. Dora took a deep breath and began her presentation with confidence. Today she found her courage successfully.‎ 各档次的给分范围和要求：‎ 第五档（21-25分）‎ 与所给短文融洽度高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接合理；‎ 内容丰富，应用了5个以上短文中标出的关键词语；‎ 所使用语法结构和词汇丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达；‎ 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。‎ 第四档（16-20分）‎ 与所给短文融洽度较高，与所提供各段落开头语衔接较为合理；‎ 内容比较丰富，应用了5个以上短文中标出的关键词语；‎ 所使用语法结构和词汇较为丰富、准确，可能有些许错误，但完全不影响意义表达；‎ 比较有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使所续写短文结构紧凑。‎ 第三档（11-15分）‎ 与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；‎ 写出了若干有关内容，应用了4个以上短文中标出的关键词语；‎ 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求，虽有一些错误，但完全不影响意义表达；‎ 第二档（6-10分）‎ 与所给短文关系较为密切，与所提供各段落开头语有一定程度的衔接；‎ 写出了一些有关内容，应用了3个以上短文中标出的关键词语；‎ 语法结构单调、词汇项目有限，有些语法结构和词汇方面的错误，影响了意义的表达；‎ 较少使用语句间的连接成分，全文内容缺少连贯性。‎ 第一档（1-5分）‎ 与所给短文和开头语的衔接较差；‎ 产出内容太少，很少使用短文中标出的关键词语；‎ 语法结构单调、词汇项目很有限，有较多语法结构和词汇方面的错误，严重影响了意义的表达；‎ 缺乏语句间的连接成分，全文内容不连贯。‎ ‎0分 白卷，内容太少，无法评判。所写内容与所提供内容无关。‎ 听力录音原文 Text 1‎ W: Why not go to the Picasso exhibition at the Metro Museum this weekend?‎ M: Ah, it is not far from my house and I like Picasso, too.‎ Text 2‎ W: Are you familiar with the office management?‎ M: I’ve done something like that before.‎ W: Are you still interested in it?‎ M: I think I am. I left the job only because it was too far from my home. ‎ Text 3‎ W: I can’t understand this passage. There are so many new ideas introduced all at once. On top of this, the sentences are very long.‎ M: Have you tried reading the first sentence again? It might help you find the main idea.‎ Text 4‎ M: Where did you get this wonderful party dress? It is really beautiful.‎ W: I picked it up from a store. With all the preparations for the party, I didn’t have time to make ‎ one.‎ Text 5‎ W: What do you think of the professor’s speech?‎ M: I thought it would be easy, but I was confused. He spoke too fast.‎ W: If you understood what he said, you would find it really interesting. ‎ Text 6‎ W: Tom, when are you leaving for London? The day after tomorrow?‎ M: No, today is July 10th, so that’s in five days. ‎ W: Have you booked your plane ticket?‎ M: Yes. I did that this morning.‎ W: Will you go to the airport by bus or by taxi?‎ M: Jim will go to the airport that morning. He’ll give me a lift. ‎ W: That’s great.‎ Text 7‎ W: How was your holiday?‎ M: Great. I joined an outdoor touring party and spent my holiday in a vacation village. We did something different each day.‎ W: Wow! When did you arrive?‎ M: On Friday afternoon. We started with a game of football to get to know the other people. ‎ W: And what did you do on Saturday?‎ M: There was a beautiful pool and we had races and played volleyball in the water.‎ W: Did you go out into the countryside?‎ M: Yes. We did go out into the countryside on Sunday, and to a basketball club for some lessons. ‎ I also went running along the country road every day to keep fit.‎ Text 8‎ W: You look sad, Jason. What’s wrong?‎ M: I got a ticket just now.‎ W: Why?‎ M: I was driving slowly near the shopping mall when a policeman suddenly appeared from behind and asked me to pull over. He told me that I had stopped on the double yellow line while I was waiting for the light. ‎ W: Why did you do that? You are not a new driver.‎ M: I was thinking about my mother. She’s been ill in bed. I was worrying about her, so I didn’t notice where I had stopped. ‎ W: Sorry to hear that. Then what did you say?‎ M: I said I was wrong, but the policeman wrote me a ticket anyway. That means I lost $425!‎ Text 9‎ W: So what special needs do business travelers have?‎ M: The most important thing is quick check-in and check-out. After a long trip, it’s annoying to have to wait at the hotel reception. Room service is also important. Guests often stay in their rooms working and have no time to go out to a restaurant, so they want their meals to be served in their rooms. ‎ W: And what about facilities in the hotel?‎ M: The bars are important. Business travelers tend to spend more time in the hotel bars than tourists. It’s very important to provide a business center, too.‎ W: Right. What about the distance to the airport and city center? Is that important?‎ M: Yes. We’re in the east of London, so we’re near City Airport. Lots of our guests have meetings in this area, and they don’t want to be near Heathrow Airport or right in the city center. But it’s easy to get to the center of London from here. It only takes about 15 minutes with our free bus. ‎ Text 10‎ W: Good morning! This is the English test for international students, and this is Room 405. If you are here for the SAT, please go to Room 204. If you are here for the GRE, go to Room 307. Okay, then, to begin with, you shall not take anything with you into the testing room. That means mobile phones, iPods, pens, paper, pencils, etc. You will each be given a locker and a key. You should put all of your belongings in the lockers. You may, however, wear your coats to the testing room since the hallways are very cold at this time of year. You must place your coats on the chair outside the testing room before you go into, though. You cannot wear your coats in the testing room. Then, the bathrooms. While you are waiting to be called for your speaking test, you shall ask one of the monitors for permission to use the restroom. Only one female and one male will be allowed to use the facilities separately at a time. Also, once your name and number have been called, you must go directly to your testing room.‎