英语卷·2018届山东省枣庄市高三第一次模拟考试（上学期期末）（2018-01） 16页

山东省枣庄市2018 届高三第一次模拟考试 英语试题 注意事项：‎ ‎1.本试卷分第I 卷（选择题）和第II 卷（非选择题）两部分。第I 卷第1至第10页.第II 卷第11至12页。共150分。考试用时120分钟。‎ ‎2.答题前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡和试卷规定的位置。‎ ‎3.第I 卷每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。‎ ‎4.第II 卷必须用0.5毫米黑色签字作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域相应的位置，不能写在试卷上；不能使用涂改液、胶带纸、修正带修改。‎ 第I卷 第一部分：听力（共两节，满分30分）‎ 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。‎ 第一节 （共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在 卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ ‎1. What does the man mean?‎ A. Janet will graduate next week.‎ B. Janet doesn’t like to work this week.‎ C. Janet might not attend the ceremony.‎ ‎2. Where does the conversation probably take place?‎ A. In a lab.‎ B. In a phone shop.‎ C. In Jenny’s house.‎ ‎3. What do you think the man will do?‎ A. Take a travel.‎ B. Buy some food.‎ C. Visit a friend.‎ ‎4. What does the man want to do?‎ A. Have a picnic.‎ B. Have a barbecue.‎ C. Have a sigh-seeing.‎ ‎5. How did the woman book the ticket?‎ A. On online.‎ B. By telephone.‎ C. Going to the ticket office.‎ 第二节  （共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）‎ ‎ 听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有2至4个小题，从题中做给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有5秒钟的时间阅读各个小题；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话读两遍。‎ 听第6段材料，回答第6、7题。‎ ‎6. Why does the man make the phone call?‎ A. To discuss a website.‎ B. To check an order.‎ C. To change the delivery time.‎ ‎7. What day is it today?‎ A. Monday.‎ B. Thursday.‎ C. Friday.‎ 听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。‎ ‎8. What are the speakers doing?‎ A. Preparing for a trip.‎ B. Visiting the museum.‎ C. Doing some shopping.‎ ‎9. What will the woman take?‎ A. A guidebook.‎ B. A coat.‎ C. An umbrella.‎ 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。‎ ‎10. When are the students supposed to meet for the field trip?‎ A. At 7:00 am. B. At 7:15am. C. At 8:00am.‎ ‎11. How will the boy probably go to school today?‎ A. By bus.‎ B. In his mom’s car.‎ C. In Mrs. Anderson’s car.‎ ‎12. What is the relationship between the boy and Billy?‎ A. Brothers.‎ B. Good friends.‎ C. Colleagues.‎ 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。‎ ‎13. Why does the woman come to the library?‎ A. To look up some words.‎ B. To borrow some dictionaries.‎ C. To collect materials for her papers.‎ ‎14. What does the woman invite the man to do?‎ A. Take a walk.‎ B. Have some coffee.‎ C. Have a chat.‎ ‎15. What does the man lose?‎ A. His notebook.‎ B. His bag.‎ C. His paper cards.‎ ‎16. Where will the man go first?‎ A. The study hall.‎ B. The reading-room.‎ C. The coffee house.‎ 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。‎ ‎17. What does the man mainly talk about?‎ A. A music concert tour in the countryside.‎ B. A summer course of English-learning.‎ C. A summer course for young musicians.‎ ‎18. Where does the man put up the advertisement?‎ A. On the Internet.‎ B. In the newspaper.‎ C. On TV.‎ ‎19. What is required to take the course?‎ A. Great musicians.‎ B. Basic English skills.‎ C. University students.‎ ‎20. Why is the course to be held in the university?‎ A. The cost is low.‎ B. It is more spacious.‎ C. It’s convenient for the students.‎ 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分）‎ 第一节（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C、D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ A Four apps for students to learn English Quizlet ‎ Quizlet is a learning app---a computer program you use on your mobile device. It can help users build and test their knowledge of English words and terms. Quizlet has word sets for millions of subjects. And, it is quickly becoming a useful mobile tool for language learners.‎ Socrative In Socrative, teachers can create timed learning games. In class, students compete ‎ individually or as part of a team against classmates. One game students love is called space Race. In this game, if a team answers a question correctly, their rocket moves forward. This team whose rocket gets to the end first wins. Also, teachers can use Socrative as an “exit ticket,” a question they can ask students about what they learned in that day’s class. Students write their answers on their mobile devices. Then, the teacher can show the answers on a shared video screen.‎ QR Codes ‎ A QR Code is a kind of sign that a smartphone can read with its camera. When your phone camera reads a QR code, it takes you to a website, image, video or anything you want to share. For example, one will take you to the VOA Learning English website.‎ Evernote Evernote lets users store and share notes, images and recordings in one place. Teachers can also use Evernote to give homework.‎ ‎21. Which is the best for students to build up vocabulary?‎ A. Quizlet.‎ B. QR Codes.‎ C. Evernote.‎ D. Socrative.‎ ‎22. What can a teacher do by using Socrative?‎ A. Give homework.‎ B. Carry out a classroom test.‎ C. Look up new words.‎ D. Visit an English-learning website.‎ ‎23. What’s the purpose of the text?‎ A. To make an advertisement.‎ B. To encourage using mobile phones.‎ C. To improve English learning.‎ D. To introduce some learning apps.‎ B Natalie Trayling is a famous street artist in Melbourne. At first, those who happened to pass by her and spare some change didn’t even realize what a musical genius was playing. The ‎ emotional tune was not only masterfully played but also composed by Natalie herself when she was only 14. Gradually, as long as she appears, people will stop, absorbed in her music. Her music makes you think about calmness, the good things in life, and never giving up.‎ But what people do not know is that behind the beautiful music of the old woman, it is full of bitterness. At the age of 12, she won a music scholarship at Santa Maria College. At 15 she knocked back a scholarship to the Royal Academy of Music in London because her parents couldn’t pay non-tuition costs. When she left school, she taught piano at Santa Maria. Later she met her husband, Denis. They had four children, but the two of them died. In 1984, Denis asked for a divorce. Natalie’s son, Nathan, was given medication for depression. Natalie lived either outdoors in Royal Park or in boarding houses for nine years. In late 2003 Natalie collapsed with anaemia(贫血) and was hospitalized for six months.‎ For half a century, Natalie has been teased by fate. But even so, she never gave up her love for music. When asked why the music was so important to her, she said: “Music is everything. I do feel part of it. The whole world is music.”‎ When Natalie went on the Internet, she became a sign of Melbourne. People are impressed by her persistence in dreams and the optimism of life. Now she is no longer wandering around. She can play the piano at any time, but as long as the weather is good, she will walk to the streets of Melbourne, and play a touching melody for the rush of the city.‎ ‎24. Why is Natalie’s music so touching to the passers-by?‎ A. It is full of bitterness.‎ B. She composed it herself.‎ C. It’s a reflection of her own life.‎ D. It reminds of the beauty of life.‎ ‎25. Which of the following can replace the underlined word “knocked back” in Paragraph 2?‎ A. gave up B. obtained C. accepted D. was awarded ‎26. What does music mean to Natalie?‎ A. It’s her hobby.‎ B. It’s the source of her misfortune.‎ C. It is part of her life.‎ D. It’s a way to earn a living.‎ ‎27. What does the author try to tell us?‎ A. Natalie is a musical genius.‎ B. Life is not easy for everyone.‎ C. Never give up halfway.‎ D. Natalie has a strong and brave heart.‎ C ‎3D printing is becoming more and more popular. We are now able to create things we need very quickly and easily using 3D printers. But can you imagine printing food?‎ Some scientists are trying to revolutionize the dining experience by doing this. They hope that having a 3D printer in the kitchen will be as common as the microwave oven or blender.‎ Scientists say that it’ll be quite easy: you simply have to select a recipe and put the raw food ‘inks’ into the printer. You can also modify the instructions to make the food exactly how you want it. This means that it would be very quick and easy to create tasty and nutritious meals.‎ Using 3D printers to create your meals would also be saving the environment. There would be less need for traditional growing, transporting and packaging processes as food production would be a lot more efficient. For example, alternative ingredients(原料) such as proteins from algae, beetroot leaves and insects could be converted into tasty products.‎ Printing food could also help people who suffer from dysphasia (a swallowing disorder). They could program the printer to print softer versions of their favorite foods so that they would not have trouble in swallowing them.‎ However, some people think that a future of 3D food printing would be a disaster. It could take away many jobs, including those fro growing, transporting and packaging food. Imagine a world where there was no need for farming or growing crops and the same tastes could be printed from a raw “food ink”. Likewise, traditional cafes and restaurants might lose business. Also, there are concerns about the nutritional value of printed food: is it really possible to be get the nutrients we need from food –based inks and gels(凝胶)?‎ What’s more , cooking and eating together with family and friends has long been a traditional ‎ and enjoyable activity. It is hard to imagine a world where the pleasure of cooking is dead and meals can be created at the touch of a button.‎ ‎28. Which of the following best describes 3D food printing?‎ A. Quick and popular.‎ B. Easy and efficient.‎ C. Nutritious and tasty.‎ D. Soft and convenient.‎ ‎29. Why do some think that 3D food printing would be a disaster?‎ A. Traditional food would disappear.‎ B. Many people could lose their jobs.‎ C. It would affect the people’s health.‎ D. We could all eat the same food.‎ ‎30. What can we infer from the last paragraph?‎ A. 3D food printing will replace traditional cooking.‎ B. The future of 3D food printing is uncertain.‎ C. It would hurt our tradition of food culture.‎ D. 3D food printing would be a failure.‎ ‎31. Which of the following can be the best title for the text?‎ A. 3D food “printing”: coming to the kitchen B. Can 3D printing create everything?‎ C. 3D—printing food will be in fashion!‎ D. The disadvantage of 3D food printing ‎ D The year 2018 will mark the 100th anniversary of the deadliest influenza outbreak in history. It is estimated that the influenza pandemic(瘟疫) of 1918 killed more than 50 million people around the world. Other estimates go much higher. Because of a lack of medical record—keeping, we may never know the exact number.‎ The influenza was a fast killer. Some victims died within hours of their first symptoms. Others died after a few days. “their lungs filled with liquid and they choked to death.” The 1918 flu pandemic was also different from other outbreaks. It struck many young, healthy people. ‎ Viruses usually affect sick or old people.‎ Although modern medicine effectively controls many diseases, influenza remains difficult to protect against. The World Health Organization estimates that every year influenza kills 250,000 to 500,000 people around the world. Each year, medical scientists develop flu vaccines(疫苗) which offer immunity(免疫) from some influenza viruses. But they can only guess which form of the virus will spread.‎ Health officials remain concerned about another flu pandemic. New forms of the flu virus appear regularly. One example was the “swine flu” or H1N1 outbreak in 2009. Anthony Fauci, Director of the National Institute of Infectious Diseases in the United States says that virus caused a true pandemic.‎ To stop the next pandemic, scientists are now researching how to create a universal influenza vaccine. In October 2017, Vanderbilt University Medical Center in the U. S. announced the Universal Influenza Vaccine Initiative. The university said researchers are leading an international effort to develop a universal influenza vaccine that will protect everyone against all forms of the flu anywhere in the world. The university added that researchers will begin tests in early 2018. the Human Vaccines Project, a public—private partnership, is funding the project. However, until a universal influenza vaccine is available, today’s seasonal flu vaccine remains important.‎ ‎32. What do we know about the influenza in 1918?‎ A. It swept across the whole Europe.‎ B. No one survived the first few days.‎ C. It killed the largest number of people.‎ D. It struck only young and healthy people.‎ ‎33. Why is influenza difficult to protect against?‎ A. It spreads too rapidly.‎ B. It is quite easy to catch.‎ C. No vaccine is available.‎ D. It’s hard to judge the form of virus.‎ ‎34. What does the author want to tell by mentioning H1N1 in 2009?‎ A. New forms of flu virus keeps appearing.‎ B. It was the most serious in recent years.‎ C. It was caused by the same flu virus of 1918.‎ D. The H1N1 virus was deadly as well.‎ ‎35. What can we learn about the universal influenza vaccine?‎ A. The development is quite costly.‎ B. It will be used all over the world.‎ C. It can protect against all forms of flu.‎ D. It will soon come into use in 2018.‎ 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） ‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。‎ Last summer over 12,000 fans were at Wembley Arena in London, shouting and cheering. Thousands more were watching online. 36 It was esports, or competitive computer gaming. ‎ Millions of people in the UK play computer games for fun. Some of them have become professional gamers, playing games as their full-time job. 37 They practice for ten or more hours a day, five or six days a week. They do exercises like typing something and trying to type it faster and faster. They also study videos of other players and plan ways to beat them.‎ ‎ 38 Are players athletes? Some say no. Esports players don’t need to run, jump, throw or do big physical actions. At the moment, the UK government classifies esports as kinds of games, not as sports.‎ But others say yes: esports are sports. Players do need some physical skills, especially hand-eye coordination, reflexes, accuracy and timing. If darts, snooker and shooting are classified as sports, then perhaps esports should be too. ‎ ‎ 39 And they will be an official medal sport in the Asian Games starting from 2022. Next step: the Olympics?‎ For many esports fans and players, though, the most important thing is that esports are growing in popularity and importance. 40 ‎ A. But are esports really sports?‎ B. All like playing computer games.‎ C. It’s not easy being a professional gamer, though.‎ D. But this wasn’t a football, basketball or tennis match.‎ E. It is certain that esports will come into the 2024 Olympics.‎ F. In fact, China and South Korea do classify esports as sports.‎ G. If esports are not as important as sports now, they definitely will be in the near future.‎ 第三部分英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）‎ 第一节 完形填空（共20小题；每小题1. 5分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下面短文，从短文后所给各题四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ ‎ On Thanksgiving day, Mrs. Klein told her first graders to draw a picture of something for which they were thankful. She thought that, living in a 41 neighborhood, most of these children would draw pictures of 42 or of fully laden Thanksgiving tables. That was what they believed was 43 of them.‎ What took Mrs. Klein by 44 was Douglas’ s picture. Douglas was so alone and likely to be found 45 in her shadow as they went outside for play. Douglas’s drawing was simply a(n) 46 , obviously, but whose?‎ The class was 47 by his image. “I think it must be the hand of God that 48 us food,” said one student.‎ ‎“A 49 ,” said another, “because they grow the turkeys.”‎ ‎“It looks more like a policeman, and they 50 us.”‎ ‎“I think,” said Lavinia, who was always so 51 , “that it is supposed to be all the hands that 52 us, but Douglas could only draw one of them.”‎ Mrs. Klein had almost 53 Douglas in her pleasure at finding the class so active. When she 54 the others at work on another project, she 55 and asked Douglas whose hand it was.‎ Douglas 56 , “It’s yours, teacher.”‎ Then Mrs. Klein 57 that she had taken Douglas by the hand from time to time; she 58 did that with the children. But it should have 59 so much to Douglas!‎ Perhaps, she reflected, this was her Thanksgiving, and everybody’s Thanksgiving—not the material things 60 to us, but the small ways that we give something to others.‎ ‎41. A. wealthy B. friendly C. poor D. crowded ‎42. A. friends B. turkeys C. clothes D. flowers ‎43. A. asked B. given C. informed D. expected ‎44. A. surprise B. excitement C. accident D. relief ‎45. A. left B. sad C. close D. shut ‎46. A. hand B. image C. face D. finger ‎47. A. amused B. puzzled C. shocked D. moved ‎48. A. lends B. donates C. cooks D. brings ‎49. A. servant B. mother C. waiter D. farmer ‎50. A. guide B. teach C. protect D. arrest ‎51. A. naughty B. serious C. curious D. stupid ‎52. A. help B. love C. shelter D. lead ‎53. A. praised B. kissed C. thanked D. forgotten ‎54. A. had B. took C. changed D. stopped ‎55. A. stood up B. went over C. turned over D. looked up ‎56. A. lied B. burst in C. whispered D. cried out ‎57. A. recognized B. wondered C. imagined D. recalled ‎58. A. often B. never C. seldom D. sometimes ‎59. A. remained B. meant C. cost D. came ‎60. A. shown B. opened C. given D. said 第II 卷 第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）‎ 第二节（共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）‎ 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ China has a very rich and brilliant tea culture. It is one of the most important parts of Chinese tradition. A small cup of tea contains the spirit and 61 (wise) of the Chinese people. It seems like the most 62 (enjoy) thing to drink a cup of tea on a quiet day.‎ Just like coffee, tea grown in different areas 63 (have) different flavors. Some needs to be drunk with small and delicate tea cups, and some can 64 (drink) from a big bowl.‎ Chinese people believe tea needs to be drunk quietly, 65 many of the tea shops are located in a corner of a Hutong, providing customers 66 a very quiet and comfortable environment---but the fast ---pace of life sometimes doesn’t allow that. So there are tea shop owners who, just 67 Starbucks does, locate their shops in the downtown area to provide service for quick customers.‎ Take Heytea as 68 example. It was just a small tea shop 69 (locate) in a small lane in a small city of Guangdong province in 2012. But in only 5 years, it 70 (expand) 83 stores over China, including big cities like Beijing. Waiting in lines for more than an hour for their tea is a common occurrence.‎ 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）‎ 第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）‎ 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。‎ 增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（∧），并在其下面写出该加的词。‎ 删除：把多余的词用斜线（＼）划掉。‎ 修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。‎ 注意：1.每处错误及其修改均限一词;‎ ‎ 2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。‎ We had an English story—telling competition day before yesterday. It is required that all the entries be original and interesting, and be presenting in English within five minutes. All my classmates took an actively part in the activity. Two foreign English teachers were invited to act like judges. In the end, Li Ping had got the first place. All the participants said the activity benefited us a lot in many ways. Not only did it improved their spoken English, and it also brought them much fun. We all hope that such kinds of activity can be held again.‎ 第二节 书面表达(满分25分)‎ 假定你是李华。你听说美籍教师Tom寒假不回国。你和家人商量，想邀请他来你家过大年除夕。请你给他写一封E-mail，发出邀请，并告知以下事项：‎ ‎1.时间：2月15日下午4点；‎ ‎2.交通方式：乘6路公共汽车到光明路站下车，你到车站接他；‎ ‎3.活动：和你家人一起包水饺、吃水饺，观看春节晚会。‎ 注意：‎ ‎1.词数100左右；‎ ‎2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；‎ ‎3.水饺：dumpling；春节晚会：the Spring Festival Gala。‎ 山东省枣庄市2018 届高三第一次模拟考试 高三英语试题答案及评分标准 选择题（满分100分）‎ 第一部分：听力（每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ ‎1-5CBABA 6-10BBACB 11-15CBABC 16-20ACABA 第二部分：阅读理解（每小题2分，满分40分）‎ ‎21-25ABDDA 26-30CDBBC 31-35ACDAC 36-40DCAFG 第三部分：英语知识运用（共两节，满分45分）‎ 第一节：完形填空（每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ ‎41-45CBDAC 46-50ABDDC 51-55BADAB 56-60CDABC 非选择题（满分50分）‎ 第二节（每小题1.5分，满分15分）‎ ‎61.wisdom 62.enjoyable 63.has 64.be drunk 65.so ‎ ‎66.with 67.as 68.an 69.located 70.has expanded 第四部分：写作（共两节；满分35分）‎ 第一节：短文改错（每小题1分，满分10分）‎ We had an English story—telling competition ∧day before yesterday. It is required that all the entries be original ‎ ‎ the was and interesting, and be presenting in English within five minutes. All my classmates took an actively part in the ‎ ‎ presented active activity. Two foreign English teachers were invited to act like judges. In the end, Li Ping had got the first place. ‎ ‎ as All the participants said the activity benefited us a lot in many ways. Not only did it improved their spoken ‎ ‎ them improve English, and it also brought them much fun. We all hope that such kinds of activity can be held again.‎ ‎ but activities 第二节：书面表达（满分25分）‎ 略