【英语】四川省广元市利州区川师大万达中学2019-2020学年高二下学期5月月考 16页

四川省广元市利州区川师大万达中学2019-2020学年 高二下学期5月月考 注意事项:‎ ‎1、本试卷分第Ｉ卷 （选择题）和第Ⅱ卷 （非选择题）两部分。‎ ‎2、本堂考试120分钟，满分150分。‎ ‎3、答题前，考生务必用黑色中性笔将自己的姓名、学号填写在答题卡上，并使用2B铅笔填涂。‎ ‎4、考试结束后将答题卡交回。‎ 第Ｉ卷 （选择题 共70分）‎ 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）‎ 第一节（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）‎ 听下面5短对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从题中给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后，你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ ‎1. What kind of ice cream did the man have?‎ A. Strawberry ice cream. B. Cheesecake ice cream. C. Banana ice cream. ‎ ‎2. What is the woman advised to do with her TV?‎ A. Buy a new one. B. Have it fixed. C. Give it away. ‎ ‎3. What are the speakers talking about?‎ A. An actor. B. A teacher. C. A model. ‎ ‎4. Where is the desk now?‎ A. Under the window. B. Opposite the door. C. Next to the door. ‎ ‎5. What does the man mean?‎ A. Open the window. ‎ B. Go out to a quiet place. ‎ C. Keep the window closed. ‎ 第二节（共15小题；每小题1.5分，满分22.5分）‎ 听下面5段对话或独白，每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听 完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。‎ 听下面一段对话，回答第6至7题。‎ ‎6. What is the man dissatisfied with about the flat?‎ A. The kitchen. B. The bedroom. C. The living room. ‎ ‎7. What does the woman say about the living room?‎ A. It is big and bright. ‎ B. It is new and modern. ‎ C. It is small but well-furnished. ‎ 听下面一段对话，回答第8至9题。‎ ‎8. How did the woman go sightseeing yesterday?‎ A. On foot. B. By bus. C. By car. ‎ ‎9. What does the man suggest the woman do?‎ A. Follow him. B. Walk to the church. C. Call a bus conductor. ‎ 听下面一段对话，回答第10至12题。‎ ‎10. How did Jim get the book? ‎ A. From Mark. B. From a library. C. From a bookstore. ‎ ‎11. What makes the family different?‎ A. Their large house. ‎ B. Their tiny body sizes. ‎ C. Their attitudes toward life. ‎ ‎12. What is the woman’s attitude toward the book?‎ A. Curious. B. Shocked. C. Disappointed. ‎ 听下面一段对话，回答第13至16题。‎ ‎13. Why hasn’t David booked a room yet?‎ A. He doesn’t know how to do it. ‎ B. He lost the booking form. ‎ C. He is too busy. ‎ ‎14. When will the competition begin?‎ A. At 3:30 pm. B. At 3:45 pm. C. At 6:30 pm. ‎ ‎15. What is needed in the competition?‎ A. An English dictionary. B. A music CD. C. A computer. ‎ ‎16. What is the relationship between the speakers?‎ A. Classmates. B. Teacher and student. C. Manager and secretary.‎ 听下面一段独白，回答第17至20题。‎ ‎17. When will the party be held?‎ A. On Friday afternoon. B. On Saturday evening. C. On Sunday morning. ‎ ‎18. For whom will the party be held?‎ A. Exchange students. B. Local students. C. Teachers. ‎ ‎19. How long will the party last?‎ A. About 1 hour. B. About 1.5 hours. C. About 2 hours. ‎ ‎20. What does the speaker remind the listeners to do?‎ A. Bring a small gift. B. Make a speech. C. Sing a song.‎ 第二部分 阅读理解(共两节，满分40分)‎ 第一节 (共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分)‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。‎ A CENTRAL PARK PHOTO TOUR $79‎ With Sam L.‎ Come to shoot in the Central Park of New York that will allow you to take home digital postcards. This tour is a great introduction to Central Park and combines views of the bridges, lakes and skyline.‎ At each stop of the photo tour, I will provide you with explanations around photography(摄影)，camera settings etc. You will be able to put these tips to good use immediately.‎ NEW YORK RUNMNG TOUR $50‎ With Sebastien B.‎ Love running? Love New York? Do you want to see the sites of the city? Contact me and we’ll take a special tour. All you’ll need to do is to put on your sports shoes and we’ll be off. I’ll show you my favorite running spots along the Hudson River or north of Central Park and away from all the tourists.‎ If you’re thinking of training for something, I’ll give you the explanations and tips to make the best of your time training!‎ GREENWICH VILLAGE FOOD TOUR $75‎ With Manhattan W.‎ Discover unbelievable places to eat. This is the real Greenwich Village gastronomic(美食的) experience. Along the way, find out how the village has kept its unique character throughout the years, from the Dutch and English controlled periods to today.‎ Tour runs every day from 12:30 PM—2:30 PM.‎ NEW YORK BY NIGHT PHOTO TOUR $115‎ With Sam L.‎ We have already prepared NYC for the most unique points for you. During the 2½-hour walking tour, we share these special comers of NYC. ‎ The night tour teaches night photography techniques while discovering the “darker” side of the city that never sleeps: the UN headquarters, 42nd street, Grand Central Terminal, the Chrysler Building, Rockefeller Center and Radio City Music Hall.‎ ‎21. How much can you spend running along the Hudson River with Sebastien B?‎ A. $79 B. $75 C. $50 D. $ 115‎ ‎22. What can you do if you choose Manhattan W as your tour guide?‎ A. You can shoot some pictures B. You can do some sports C. You can learn night photography techniques D. You can enjoy some delicious food ‎23. In which part of a magazine can you read this kind of passage?‎ A.History B. Advertisement C. Science D. Politics B When the dog named Judy spotted the first sheep in her life, she did what comes naturally. The four-year-old dog set off racing after the sheep across several fields and, being a city animal, lost both her sheep and her sense of direction. Then she ran along the edge of cliff( 悬崖) and fell 100 feet, bouncing off a rock into the sea.‎ Her owner Mike Holden panicked and celled the coastguard of Cornwall, who turned up in seconds. Six volunteers slid down the cliff with the help of a rope but gave up all hope of finding her alive after a 90-minute search.‎ Three days later, a hurricane hit the coast near Cornwall. Mr. Holden returned home from his holiday upset and convinced his pet was dead. He comforted himself with the thought she had died in the most beautiful part of the country.‎ For the next two weeks, the Holdens were heartbroken. Then, one day, the phone rang and Steve Tregear, the coastguard of Cornwall, asked Holder if he would like his dog bark.‎ A birdwatcher, armed with a telescope, found the pet sitting desperately on a rock. While he sounded the alarm, a student from Leeds climbed down the cliff to collect Judy.‎ The dog had initially been knocked unconscious(失去知觉的)but had survived by drinking water from a fresh scream at the base of the cliff. She may have fed on the body of a sheep which had also fallen over the edge. “The dog was very thin and hungry,” Steve Tregear said, “It was a very dog. She survived because of a plentiful supply of fresh water,” he added.‎ It was, as Mr. Holden admitted, “a minor miracle(奇迹)”. ‎ ‎24. The dog Jody fell down the cliff when she was _____________‎ A. rescuing her owner B. caught in a hurricane C. running after a sheep D. blocked by a rock ‎25. Who spotted Judy after the accident?‎ A. A student from Leeds B. A birdwatcher C. Six volunteers D. The coastguard of Cornwall ‎26. What can we infer from the text?‎ A. People like to travel with their pets ‎ B. Luck plays a vital role in Judy's survival C. Judy was taken to the fields for hunting ‎ D. Holden cared little where Judy was buried ‎27. Which of the following can be the best title for the text?‎ A. Miracle of the Coastguard B. Surviving a Hurricane C. Coming Back from the Dead D. Dangers in the Wild ‎ C Nearly 100 girls from 12 different countries went together to Mountain View, California, on August 10, 2017. They were finalists in Technovation, the world’s largest entrepreneurship (创业) competition for girls ages 10-18. Nearly 1,100 teams from more than 100 countries took part in it.‎ The teams built mobile apps to solve problems in their community. Over the course of five months, the girls went through 100 hours of training and created an app and a business plan with the help of a teacher.‎ Girls from across the U.S. and as far away as Cambodia, Kazakhstan, India, and Kenya created apps to help change the lives in their community. Their apps help disadvantaged women and encourage people to reuse objects, to name a few examples.‎ At the awards ceremony, Google CEO Sundar Pichai welcomed “creators and future entrepreneurs”, telling the young finalists that there would be a place for them in the tech industry and that they would have a great future ahead of them.‎ After a family friend had the illness of dementia (痴呆), Katrina from Hong Kong, China, organized a team to build a Dementia Care Companion app. “We realized that dementia is a serious problem worldwide,” Katrina said. The team created a type of mahjong, a Chinese game, using photos and voices of loved ones to help patients remember their family. The girls won first prize in the Junior Division, which included $10, 000 in prize money.‎ QamCare, an app created by a team from Kazakhstan, is a good helper when people are walking alone at night. One of the girls explained how she was followed while walking home. In Kazakhstan, nine people, mostly young girls, go missing every day. QamCare won the first prize of $15, 000 in the Senior Division.‎ Technovation founder Tara Chklovski encouraged the finalists to help other girls develop their tech skills. “Technovation has given you wings,” Chklovski said. “Now it is your turn to give wings to others.”‎ ‎28. What do we know about Technovation?‎ A. It is a mobile app B. It was started in 2017 ‎ C. It is open to girls D. It is welcome in 12 countries ‎29. How did Sundar Pichai feel seeing the finalists?‎ A. Lucky B. Shocked C. Thankful D. Hopeful ‎30. Why did Katrina create a type of mahjong?‎ A. To make dementia patients live a colorful life ‎ B. To help dementia patients remember C. To raise money for research on dementia ‎ D. To learn more about dementia ‎31. What makes QamCare important?‎ A. It helps people stay safe B. It offers people a tour guide at night ‎ C. It helps find missing girls D. It shows people the shortest way home D According to a new US study, couples who expect their children to look after them in old age should hope they have daughters because daughters are twice as attentive as sons overall.21·cn·jy·com The research by Angelina Grigoryeva, from Princeton University, found that, while women provide as much care for their elderly parents as they can manage, men do as little as they can get away with and often leave it to female family members.‎ Her analysis of the family networks of 26, 000 old Americans concluded that gender(性别) is one of the most important things that decide whether or not people will actively care for their elderly parents.‎ In a paper presented at the annual conference of the American Sociological Association in San Francisco, she concludes that simply having a sister makes men likely provide less care.21教育 Using data from the University of Michigan Health and Retirement Study, a study which has been tracking a crosssection of over50s for the last decade, she calculated that women provide an average of 12.3 hours a month of care for elderly parents while men offer only 5.6 hours.21·世纪*教育网 ‎“Sons reduce their relative caregiving efforts when they have a sister, while daughters increase theirs when they have a brother.”‎ ‎“This suggests that sons pass on parent caregiving responsibilities to their sisters.”‎ In the UK, the 2011 Census showed that there are now around 6.5 million people with caring responsibilities, a figure which has risen by a tenth in a decade.‎ But many are doing so at the risk of their health. The census showed that those who provide 50 hours or more of care a week while trying to hold down a fulltime job are three times more likely to be struggling with ill health than their working counterparts who are not careers.‎ ‎32. According to the passage, what’s the most important factor to predict if people will ‎ actively care for the elderly?‎ A. Education　　　　　B. Gender C. Career D. Income ‎33. The US study finds that ________.‎ A. sons are twice as likely as daughters to care for parents in old age B. having a sister makes men less likely to look after their parents C. sons and daughters seem to give equal care to their parents D. sons are unwilling to leave caregiving responsibilities to their sisters ‎34. What does the author stress in the last paragraph?‎ A. People should give up their job to care for the elderly B. Many care providers have potential health problems C. Many care providers work longer hours than othersww-2-1-cnjy-com D. People shouldn’t pass on caring responsibilities to others ‎35. The author develops the text by ________.‎ A. explaining social networks of careers B. describing people’s experiences C. comparing different gender behavior D. analyzing various researches and datas 第二节（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，选项中有两项为多余选项。‎ Life is like a book, from which we can find happiness and sorrow, success and failure, hope and despair, and love. Life is a learning process. 36 .‎ Happiness and sorrow Materialistic happiness is short-lived, but happiness achieved by bringing a smile to others gives a certain level of fulfillment. Peace of mind is the main link to happiness. 37 . We realize the true worth of happiness when we are in sorrow.‎ ‎ 38 ‎ Failure is the path to success. It helps us to touch the sky, teaches us to survive and shows us a specific way.‎ Hope and despair ‎ 39 . Hope makes us dream. Hope builds in patience. Life teaches us not to despair even in the darkest hour, because after every night there is a day. Nothing remains the same. We have ‎ only one choice—keep moving on in life and be hopeful. ‎ Love Love plays a key role in our life. 40 . In the early stage of our life, our parents are the ones who show us unconditional love and care. They tell us what is right or wrong, good or bad. But we always tend to take this for granted. It is only after marriage and having kids that a person understands and becomes sensitive to the feelings of others.‎ A. Success and failure B. Failure leads to success     C. Hope is what keeps life going   D. No mind is happy without peace     E. Life teaches us not to regret forever     F. Without love, a person could become cruel and violent G. Experiences in life teach us new lessons and make us a better person 第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节，满分45分) ‎ 第一节（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。‎ Frank was a curious boy. The first time he saw an hourglass 沙漏), he 41 what it was.‎ His mother said, “An hourglass is made in the 42 of 8. The sand is put in at one end, and runs through a small hole in the 43 . It takes the sand 44 an hour to run through.”‎ Frank was 45 the little stream of sand. He was 46 , because it would not run faster. “Let me 47 it, mother,” said he, “it is 48 , and will never get through.”‎ ‎“It will, son,” said his mother, “The sand moves little by little, 49 it moves all the time. When you look at the 50 of the clock, you think they go very slowly, but they never 51 . While you are at play, the sand is 52 , grain by grain. The hands of the clock are moving, second by second. At night, the sand in the hourglass has run through 53 times. The hour hand of the clock has moved 54 its great face. That is because they 55 working every minute. They do not stop to 56 how much they have to do and how long it will 57 them to do it.”‎ Now, Frank’s mother wanted him to learn a little 58 , but he said, “Mother, I can 59 ‎ ‎ learn it.” His mother said, “Study all the time. Never stop to ask how long it will take to learn it.” ‎ Frank followed his mother’s 60 . He studied line after line, very busily; and in one and a half hours he knew the poem perfectly.‎ ‎41. A. wondered B. dreamed C. decided D. hoped ‎42. A. shape B. time C. hour D. clock ‎43. A. right B. left C. middle D. bottom ‎44. A. nearly B. exactly C. almost D. only ‎45. A. making B. counting C. playing D. watching ‎46. A. angry B. impatient C. disappointed D. interested ‎47. A. have B. study C. shake D. break ‎48. A. busy B lazy. C. noisy D. difficult ‎49. A. but B. so C. or D. for ‎50. A. legs B. arms C. eyes D. hands ‎51. A. go B. wait C. refuse D. stop ‎52. A. coming B. showing C. running D. working ‎53. A. 8 B. 10 C. 12 D. 24‎ ‎54. A. around B. across C. through D. towards ‎55. A. start B. keep C. try D. enjoy ‎56. A. imagine B. remember C. think D. doubt ‎57. A. allow B. spend C. depend D. take ‎58. A. question B. test C. story D. poem ‎59. A. always B. already C. just D. never ‎60. A. information B. news C. advice D. belief 第II卷（非选择题 共50分）‎ 第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）‎ 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入1个适当单词或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ ‎61. All the 29 people on the plane got killed in the air crash, the pilot ________________ (include). ‎ ‎62. He lives _______________(healthy) because he eats too much fat.‎ ‎63. Nowadays, some people, especially some females, take up yoga(瑜伽）‎ for__________________ (relax). ‎ ‎64. This is the second time that he _____________________(leave) his homeland.‎ ‎65. Either you or he ________ (be) to take part in the competition.‎ ‎66. When ______________ (cross) the street, you must be careful.‎ ‎67. Weather ________________ (permit), they will go on an outing to the beach tomorrow.‎ ‎68. It was last night __________ Ann’s husband rushed her to a nearby hospital.  ‎ ‎69. In my opinion, the __________ (gift) girl really has a gift for oil painting. ‎ ‎70. We should all take __________ lead to protect our motherland. ‎ ‎71. We usually share the feelings and ideas with each other especially when we feel ___________(depress).‎ ‎72. Much _______ my parents’ relief, I was eventually admitted to a key university.‎ ‎73. With the final exam _____________ (draw) near, I have been buried in preparing for it.‎ ‎74. when you meet new people, you’ll know ____________you have to share.‎ ‎75. Although he has graduated from this school, he still presents his teachers __________ flowers on Teachers’ Day every year.‎ 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分35分）‎ 第一节 短文改错（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）‎ 假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文，请你修改你同桌写的以下作文，文中共有10处语言错误，每句中最多有两处，每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删改或修改。‎ 增加：在缺词处加一个漏字符号（Λ），并在其下面写出该加的词。‎ 删除：把多余的词用斜线（）划掉。‎ 修改：在错的词下划一横线，并在该词下面写出修改后的词。 ‎ 注意：1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词；‎ ‎2.只允许修改10处，多者（从第11处起）不计分。‎ John’s goal in life was to become a successfully doctor. He knew he had to finish high school first, so he puts his heart into his studies---on particular, biology, chemistry and maths. Because he worked hardly at these subjects, John became good at it. However, John forgot that he needed to master some other subjects beside those he had been chosen. As a result, John failed both English and Latin at end of the second school year. So he had to repeat these subject and he was almost unable to graduate as plan. John learned a good lesson.‎ 第二节 书面表达（满分25分）‎ 假设你叫李华, 欲与本校另外三名同学组建一支乐队, 但缺乏经验, 请就以下情况或问题给著名音乐组合“凤凰传奇(Phoenix Legend)”发一封电子邮件以寻求帮助。‎ ‎1.成员中有两名男生和两名女生, 均喜欢流行音乐与现代舞蹈; ‎ ‎2.每周只在周末排练, 时间是否够用? 初期演唱宜多元化还是坚持一种风格? ‎ ‎3.怎样获得较多的表演机会? ‎ ‎4.希望能为乐队取一个名字。‎ 注意: 1.词数100左右；‎ ‎2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。‎ ‎【参考答案】‎ 一、听力（每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ ‎1－5 CAABC 6－10 BACAC ‎11－15 BAABC 16－20 BBACA 二、阅读理解 (每小题2分，满分40分)‎ ‎21－25 CDBCB 26－30 BCCDB ‎31－35 BBBBD 36－40 GDACF 三、完形填空（每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ ‎41－45 AACBD 46－50 BCBAD ‎51－55 DCCAB 56－60 CDDDC 四、单句语法填空（每题1分，满分15分） ‎ 61. included 62.unhealthily 63.relaxation 64.has left 65.is 65. crossing 67.permitting 68.that 69.gifted 70.the ‎ ‎71.depressed 72.to 73.drawing 74.what 75.with 五、短文改错（每小题1分，满分10分）‎ ‎81.successfully→successful 82.puts→put 83.on→in 84.hardly→hard ‎ ‎85.it→them 86.beside→besides 87.去掉been 88.at^end→the. ‎ ‎89.subject→subjects 90.plan→planned 六、书面表达 ‎【参考范文】‎ Dear Phoenix Legend, ‎ I am Li Hua. Since you are a well-known band, I am writing this e-mail to ask you for some advice on how to form a band. ‎ ‎①I, together with a boy and two girls in our school want to form a band. We are all fond of pop music and modern dance. I’d like to know whether we should play one kind of music or different styles to start our band. And is it enough to practice only at weekends? What’s more, how can we get more chances to perform? ②We’d appreciate it if you could come up with a name for our band. ‎ Looking forward to your reply. ‎ ‎ Yours sincerely,‎ ‎ Li Hua 听力原文 Text 1‎ W: My strawberry and cheesecake ice cream was kind of disappointing. What about yours?‎ M: My banana ice cream was very nice.‎ Text 2‎ W: My television has strange lines on the screen all the time. What do you think could be wrong with it?‎ M: I’m not sure, but it sounds like you need a new one!‎ Text 3‎ M: My teacher said Chaplin is an excellent model for a young actor to follow.‎ W: The guy had such a creative mind. Yeah, try to be like him.‎ Text 4‎ M: Have you got a new desk?‎ W: No, I have just moved it. I was getting too hot sitting under the window, so I put it over there opposite the door.‎ Text 5‎ W: Do you mind if I open the window?‎ M: We need to keep it quiet here.‎ Text 6‎ W: What do you think of this flat?‎ M: It’s not really all that good. ⑥The bedroom is a little small for us.‎ W: Small, but it should be enough for our needs, I think. ⑦I love the living room. It is huge and filled with sunshine.‎ M: Yes, and I like the kitchen. It’s new and well-equipped.‎ W: And it has a great balcony with a view of the park.‎ M: You are right. The view is beautiful.‎ Text 7‎ W: Excuse me, could you tell me how I can get to the city church?‎ M: Are you driving or taking public transportation?‎ W: ⑧I drove here yesterday and spent the day driving to all the sights, but today I have decided to go by bus.‎ M: ⑨Walk with me. I’m heading in the direction where you will be catching the bus you want. The bus conductor will tell you how to change to the next bus and where to get off.‎ Text 8‎ W: Jim, it seems that you enjoy reading the book. It must be a very interesting one.‎ M: You can say that again. (10)My friend Mark suggested I buy this book at the bookstore last weekend, but I didn’t show any interest at first. I’m glad I’ve listened to him at last. ‎ W: What is the story about?‎ M: It’s about a family. They live a happy life. (11)They are nothing special except for one small detail: they’re tiny. And they live beneath the floor of an old English country house.‎ W: (12)That sounds really amazing.  ‎ M: Yes. One day, they are spotted by the humans who live above them. ‎ W: (12)Are the humans shocked? Do they want them to stay there? I cannot wait to know what happens to them next.‎ M: I don’t know. I haven’t finished it yet.‎ W: (12)Do please lend it to me after you finish it.‎ M: OK.‎ Text 9‎ W: David, have you booked a room for the English story-telling competition ahead of time?‎ M: I’m sorry, Miss Abbey. (13)I don’t know how to book it.  ‎ W: That’s easy. Look at this booking form. Just fill out the form and give it to the secretary of the school office.‎ M: OK. (16)Let me write down my name and class first. Miss Abbey, which room shall we book?‎ W: The rooms on the fourth floor are big. What about Room 401?‎ M: OK. School finishes at 3:30. Will the competition begin at 3:30 then?‎ W: I don’t think the competitors can arrive immediately after school. (14)Let’s begin at 3:45and finish at 6:30.‎ M: I see. The number of people is 36. And what equipment are we using that day?‎ W: (15)We need a computer to show some pictures and play some music.‎ M: (16)Yes, Miss Abbey. I’ll write your name here because you’re the teacher in charge.‎ W: OK. Have you filled in the date yet? It’s September 21st.‎ M: Oh, thank you. Miss Abbey.‎ W: You’re welcome.‎ Text 10‎ W: May I have your attention, please? I have an announcement to make. (17)The Students’ Union is going to hold a party on Saturday evening (18)to welcome the exchange students from Australia. The party will be held in the school hall. (19)It will begin at 7:30 and is ‎ supposed to end at 9:30. There will be music, dancing, singing, games and exchange of presents. (20)Would everybody please bring a small present? Please don’t forget to put a card with a few words of good wishes as well.‎ Remember, it’s 7:30, Saturday evening, in the school hall. It will be a lot of fun. Everyone is welcome.‎