2018-2019学年山东泰安肥城市高一上学期期中考试英语试题 16页

高 一 英 语 试 题 本试卷共 12 页。满分 150 分，考试用时 120 分钟。考试结束，将答题卡交回。 注意事项: 1. 答题前，考生务必用 0.5 毫米黑色签字笔将自己的姓名、座号、考生号填写在答题 卡和试卷规定的位置上。 2. 选择题每小题选出答案后，用 2B 铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑；如需改 动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。 3. 非选择题必须用 0.5 毫米黑色签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域内 相应的位置，不能写在试卷上；如需改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案；不 能使用涂改液、胶带纸、修正带。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。 第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分） 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答 案转涂到答题卡上。 第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分, 满分 7.5 分） 听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最 佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题 和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。 1. What does the man mean? A. Open the window. B. Go to another room. C. Get out of the room. 2. How does the man feel? A. Nervous. B. Upset. C. Happy. 3. Why does the man come to the woman? A. To check out. B. To find his phone. C. To ask his room number. 4. What language did the woman learn in high school? A. English. B. Chinese. C. Spanish. 5. What are the speakers most probably talking about? A. An air conditioner. B. The weather. C. The town center. 第二节（共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分） 听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个 选项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各 个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两 遍。 听下面一段对话，回答第 6 和第 7 两个小题。 6. What is the man’s father? A. A scientist. B. A businessman. C. A travel agent. 7. What does the man probably like now? A. Business. B. Science. C. Travel. 听下面一段对话，回答第 8 和第 9 两个小题。 8. Where is the woman going? A. New York. B. Los Angeles. C. Chicago. 9. What does the woman care most about the flight? A. The price. B. The departure time. C. The position of the airport. 听下面一段对话，回答第 10 至第 12 三个小题。 10. Where are the speakers probably? A. On the way. B. In an office. C. At home. 11. When will the speakers meet for lunch? A. At 12:15 pm. B. At 1:00 pm. C. At 2:15 pm. 12. What will the woman do at 9:30? A. Meet Maria for shopping. B. Do exercise at the gym. C. Have a hair appointment. 听下面一段对话，回答第 13 至第 16 三个小题。 13. What is the weather probably like? A. Rainy. B. Sunny. C. Windy. 14. When does the conversation take place? A. In the morning. B. At noon. C. In the afternoon. 15. How does the woman find the working time here? A. Long. B. Strict. C. Satisfying. 16. Where do the woman’s family live? A. In Britain. B. In Mexico. C. In Australia. 听下面一段独白，回答第 17 至第 20 四个小题。 17. Whom is the speaker talking to? A. Teachers. B. New students. C. Visitors. 18. What department is newly opened? A. The English department. B. The Chinese department. C. The Russian department. 19. Where are the teachers in the English department mainly from? A. England and America. B. America and Australia. C. America and Canada. 20. Which is the largest building in the college? A. The main library. B. The dining hall. C. The English department building. 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分 50 分） 第一节（共 16 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 40 分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C 和 D）中，选出最佳选项，并在答 题卡上将该项涂黑。 A The Woolly Monkey Mysteries: The Questio Save a Rain Forest Species By Sandra Markle. Ages 8 to 10. Woolly Monkeys spend most of their time high up in 150-foot-tall trees. That makes them difficult animals to count and to study. But cameras have provided valuable information and taken, as this book shows, amazing pictures. Experts now believe that Peru’s lowland monkeys and the waste they produce are necessary to the survival of the rain forest. Camp Panda: Helping Cubs Return to the Wild By Catherine Thimmesh. Ages 10 to 12. The giant panda is much-beloved in China, but in the past 40 years, at least half of its places has been destroyed. Camp Panda tells about efforts to reintroduce the giant pandas into the wild so that they might have a future. As part of the efforts, people wear panda costumes (服装) that smell like pandas while weighing and measuring the young pandas. They aren’t supposed to get used to seeing and being around people, because people could bring a threat to them in the wild. Beyond Words: What Elephants and Whales Think and Feel By Carl Safina. Ages 10 and older. Carl Safina studied elephants in an African national park and killer whales off the coast of Washington state. He learned about their strong family bonds, the surprising ways they communicate and how they play and hang out with one another. This book makes a strong case for protecting the ability of these animals to live freely. Back from the Brink: Saving Animals from Extinction By Nancy F Castaldo. Ages 10 and older. This book focuses on seven groups of animals—including whooping cranes, California condors and American alligators—that were brought back to healthy numbers by a lot of efforts. As she celebrates these successes, Nancy F. Castaldo also makes clear that dangers, such as the effects of climate change, still cloud the future of these creatures. 21. Which is the most suitable book for readers below 10? A. The Woolly Monkey Mysteries: The Questio Save a Rain Forest Species. B. Beyond Words: What Elephants and Whales Think and Feel. C. Back from the Brink: Saving Animals from Extinction. D. Camp Panda: Helping Cubs Return to the Wild. 22. Why do people wear panda costumes? A. To attract visitors. B. To make pandas feel safe. C. To take photos of pandas in the wild. D. To celebrate the increasing number of pandas. 23. What do these four books focus on? A. Animal rights. B. Climate change. C. Animal protection. D. Rain forests. 24. What’s the purpose of the author to write the text? A. To introduce four books. B. To get to know some writers. C. To describe some rare animals. D. To educate children to love animals. B It was a cold morning, and Eduardo Ortega was nervous. He held a large envelope (信封). In it was his dream. “This is everything,” he said. “I’ve worked for this since I was a young boy.” He remembered the long hours working in the fields, picking strawberries and beans. After work every day, his tired friends drank coffee or slept. Eduardo went to the evening school. He studied, read, and wrote poems and short stories. Although he missed many classes, he became the best student. One school year, Eduardo wrote a poem that won a prize — a trip to San Francisco. As he flew, he felt free from his life of hard work in the fields. He promised himself not to return to that life. He loved to fly. This morning, Eduardo caught the school bus and went to school with the envelope. He walked past his classmates and sat down at his desk. He took a deep breath, drew the envelope out of his pocket and carefully opened it and began reading the letter inside. It was the answer to his application to the state university. It was also the answer to the beginning of his dream of becoming a pilot. Even though Eduardo worked to help his family, his father always encouraged him to go to school. So, while he worked, he also studied. Eduardo knew that his dream was his father’s dream, too. His father was a smart man, but he was too poor to go to college. He loved to read, but never had time, because he worked long hours. Now, as he read the words, “Congratulations … you have been accepted,” he knew his dream was not lost. One day he would become a pilot, flying every day to all the exciting places in the world. 25. What did Eduardo do when his friends drank coffee or slept? A. He attended classes. B. He studied and wrote. C. He worked in the fields. D. He helped around his home. 26. What was Eduardo’s dream? A. Becoming a pilot. B. Becoming a writer. C. Travelling around the world. D. Realizing his father’s dream. 27. What was Eduardo’s father’s attitude toward his dream? A. Doubtful. B. Unconcerned. C. Supportive. D. Unclear. 28. What was in the envelop? A. An invitation to a flying trip. B. Encouragement from his father. C. Congratulations from his friends. D. An admission notice from a university. C Each May since 1956 people from across Europe and around the world have gathered around their televisions with friends and family for an evening of international entertainment (娱乐): The Eurovision Song Contest. It may be a fun event but perhaps it’s not the shared celebration of European language that it could be. In the first ten years of Eurovision, the UK and Ireland were the only two countries to sing in English. Now English is what we expect. Is it that English has become the official language of music? From high streets in Hungary to supermarkets in Sweden, from bus stops in Bulgaria to parks in Poland, people listen to English-language music everywhere. And people don’t just listen, they sing it too! From sporting events in Spain to nightclubs in Norway, from concerts in Croatia to fitness classes in France, people sing along to popular songs in their everyday lives, in English. But why? For one evening each year Eurovision is the dinner party of Europe. A dinner party to which each guest brings something unique. Their clothing, tradition and food represent their culture and their language shows the character of a nation. Although there are 50 nations with 83 languages, for Eurovision, English is the only language. Does Eurovision really represent Europe? English is an international language spoken by over 1 billion people worldwide. It is no surprise that so many musicians make music in English. Of course, music makes money and more listeners make more money. According to Ragnar Thorhallsson, a singer and guitarist, English is simpler and is easier to make rhymes (韵律). Could this be true? Let’s remember that although English-language music is everywhere, music is not everything. As long as we continue to learn, to speak, to love, diversity (多样性) shall be valued. After all, what fun is a dinner party if the guests can’t communicate or express themselves in the way they choose? 29. What do we know about Eurovision? A. Singers sing English songs. B. It helps protect European cultures. C. It is the most popular contest in the world. D. Singers mainly come from the UK and Ireland. 30. What’s the main idea of Paragraph 2? A. Music in daily life. B. The popularity of English music. C. The official language of music. D. Music in different countries. 31. What can we infer about Ragnar Thorhallsson’s opinion of English? A. It is easy and beautiful. B. It should be used in all music. C. It is the best language in the world. D. It helps musicians make money easily. 32. What is mainly discussed in the text? A. Why we should protect language diversity. B. How language and music affect each other. C. Whether English is the official language of music. D. Why Eurovision is becoming more and more popular. D As a young boy, I knew what people said was not always what they meant or were feeling. And I knew it was possible to get others to do what I wanted if I read their real feelings and responded suitably to their needs. At the age of eleven, I sold rubber door-to-door after school and quickly worked out how to tell if someone was likely to buy from me. When I knocked on a door, if someone told me to go away but their hands were open and they showed their palms (the inside surfaces of their hands), I knew it was safe to continue because they weren’t angry although they may have a dismissive (不屑的) attitude. If someone told me to go away in a soft voice but used a pointed finger or closed hand, I knew it was time to leave. As a teenager, I became a salesperson, and my ability to read people earned me enough money to buy my first house. Selling gave me the chance to meet people and study them close and to know whether they would buy or not, simply by watching their body language. I joined the life insurance ( 保 险 ) business at the age of twenty. And I went on to break several sales records for my company, becoming the youngest person to sell over a million dollars’ worth of business in my first year. This achievement allowed me to become a member of the well-known Million Dollar Round Table (MDRT), which recognizes the world’s top achievers in life insurance. I was lucky that the skills I’d learned as a boy in watching body language while selling could be used in this new area, and were directly related to the success I could have in any business closely connected with people. 33. Which of the following meant the author must go away? A. A customer’s soft voice. B. A customer’s pointed finger. C. A customer’s open palms. D. A customer’s dismissive expression. 34. What does the underlined words “new area” in the last paragraph refer to? A. The study of selling products. B. The work for the MDRT. C. The sales industry. D. The life insurance business. 35. What was the key to the author’s success? A. Listening to customers’ words. B. Understanding customers habits. C. Trying to satisfy customers’ needs. D. Reading customers’ body language. 36. How does the text mainly develop? A. By following the order of time. B. By giving clear explanations. C. By giving well-known examples. D. By following the order of importance. 第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分） 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多 余选项。 A letter to my children on their first day of school Dear Olivia and Evan, As I opened my eyes this morning, the realization that you will be starting a new school year at a new school today controlled my mind for a moment. As we went about our morning routine (例行事务), I thought of so many things I wanted to say to you. As I quietly entered your room and softly kissed you awake—I wanted to tell you that I know what it’s like to be the new kid. I understand worrying about finding your way both physically and socially. You’ll spend a lifetime finding your way. 37 As I stood at the bathroom door while you brushed your teeth—I wanted to tell you to try not to look so nervous. 38 It is said a picture is worth a thousand words. I believe a smile is wroth at least that much. 39 —I wanted to tell you if at any moment today you find yourself in an uncomfortable situation, just breathe. You’ll be surprised how a couple of deep breaths can help you see things in a whole new light. As we got in the car—I wanted to tell you not everyone will have things in common with you. 40 They may pleasantly surprise you. As I drove the few blocks to school—I wanted to tell you to listen when the teacher speaks, when someone new talks about themselves, etc. 41 As you got out of the car I gave you each a kiss and a hug and said — “Just be yourself, and remember how much I love you. I’ll be waiting to hear all about your experiences this afternoon.” I realized that’s really all you needed to hear. Love Mom A. Never give up. B. As you went to bed C. As you ate your breakfast D. Accept the differences happily. E. It’s good to take notes while listening in class. F. Listening is one of those skills that will come in handy later in life. G. The simple act of smiling can be the beginning of a beautiful friendship. 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 30 分） 第一节 完形填空（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分, 满分 15 分） 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C 和 D）中，选出可以填入空 白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 During my first three years of college, I put on weight quickly. Between classwork and a part-time job, I had zero time for 42 . Besides, I ate a lot of fast food. Not surprisingly, I 43 a fat stomach. After leaving college, I 44 to take exercise. Invited by a friend, I 45 working out with exercise machines three times a week. I was the kind of person who did not try something 46 . I ate the same food; I did the same thing. M friend, however, became 47 . One day, he said, “We’re not getting enough exercise. We should play tennis instead.” Me? Play tennis? No way. I was strongly against his 48 . I was not good at sports and I was 49 the exercise machines. 50 , weeks later, I found myself standing on a tennis court (球场). As I held my racket (球拍), I felt 51 . I ran after every ball he served to me, completely 52 about 90% of them, hitting the rest into the other court. The first few months were quite 53 . But one day, as the ball came flying toward me, my racket and the ball finally met in the place where it is most effective to hit a ball. I watched 54 as my return landed where I had aimed (瞄准) it. I had finally 55 how to play tennis properly! I learned a 56 during my journey toward learning to play tennis: I can do whatever I set my mind to. 42. A. games B. holidays C. research D. exercise 43. A. got B. wanted C. hated D. protected 44. A. decided B. agreed C. regretted D. continued 45. A. avoided B. imagined C. began D. minded 46. A. important B. new C. simple D. similar 47. A. busy B. careless C. bored D. lazy 48. A. rule B. job C. reply D. idea 49. A. worried about B. happy with C. sure of D. responsible for 50. A. As usual B. At first C. Besides D. However 51. A. silly B. relaxed C. proud D. satisfied 52. A. controlling B. throwing C. missing D. playing 53. A. interesting B. painful C. different D. easy 54. A. in secret B. in anger C. in fear D. in surprise 55. A. asked B. learned C. taught D. remembered 56. A. lesson B. skill C. business D. task 第二节（共 10 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分） 阅读下面材料，在空白处填入适当的内容（1 个单词）或括号内单词的正确形式。 Wang Kun and Wang Wei are brother and sister. They have dreamed of 57 (take) a great bike trip. It was Wang Wei 58 first had the idea to cycle along the Mekong River. In order to do the trip properly, they went to the library and found a large atlas (地图集) with good maps 59 it. After a careful study of the maps, they found the source of the river. They 60 (ride) bicycles to travel along the Mekong River, whose source is in Qinghai Province. When it enters Southeast Asia, it travels 61 (slow) through hills, low valleys and the plains where rice grows. Although there were 62 (difficult), Wang Kun and Wang Wei were determined 63 (begin) their journey. During their journey, they enjoyed 64 beautiful scenery of deep valleys, waterfalls and the continuous change of the weather. 65 (final), they reached Dali in Yunnan Province, where Dao Wei and Yu Hang joined them. The four of them went on with their great bike trip. This was a really 66 (amaze) experience. 第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 40 分） 第一节 单词拼写 （共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分） 67. He (戒掉) smoking when he was at college. 68. It’s a big challenge for me to speak English ________ (流利). 69. Marathon is just a fun run that help the ________ (社区). 70. The blind boy has a (积极) attitude towards life. 71. I’ve had my passport, and I’m _______ (申请) for my visa tomorrow. 第二节 汉译英（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分） 72. 我们期盼着迎接来自英国的交换生。 73. 如果早起床的话，我们应该会赶得上。 74. 我能接受失败，但是我不能接受不努力。 75. 由于沉迷游戏，他不能集中精力于学习上。 76. 当姚明双脚离开地面时，时间似乎都凝固了。 第三节 书面表达（满分 25 分） 假如你是李华，你的美国笔友 John 发来邮件说他新学期在选择课程方面遇到了一些困 惑，很着急。请你根据以下提示给他回一封邮件。 1. 表示理解； 2. 提出建议； 3. 表达祝愿。 注意：1. 词数 100 左右； 2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 高一英语试题参考答案及评分标准 第一部分 听力（共 20 小题；每小题 1.5 分, 满分 30 分） 1—5 CBBCA 6—10 BCAAC 11—15BAAAC 16—20 CBBCA 第二部分 阅读理解（共 21 小题； 满分 50 分） 第一节 （共 16 小题；每小题 2.5 分，满分 40 分） 21—24 ABCA 25—28 BACD 29—32 ABAC 33—36 BDDA 第二节（共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分） 37—41 AGCDF 第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分 30 分） 第一节 完形填空（共 15 小题；每小题 1 分, 满分 15 分） 42—46 DAACB 47—51 CDBDA 52—56 CBDBA 第二节 语法填空 (共 10 小题; 每小题 1.5 分，满分 15 分) 57. A. taking 58. who/that 59. in 60. rode 61.slowly 62. difficulties 63. to begin 64. the 65. Finally 66. amazing 第四部分 写作（共三节，满分 40 分） 第一节 单词拼写 (共 5 小题；每小题 1 分，满分 5 分) 67. quit 68. fluently 69. community 70. positive 71. applying (每小题 1 分，满分 5 分) 第二节 汉译英 (共 5 小题；每小题 2 分，满分 10 分) 72. We are looking forward to meeting the exchange student from UK. 73. If we get up early, we should make it. 74. I can accept failure, but I can’t accept not trying. 75. As he is addicted to games, he can’t focus on/concentrate on his study. 76. When Yao Ming’s feet left the ground, time seemed to stand still. 第三节 书面表达 (满分 25 分) 评分原则： 1．本题总分为 25 分，按 5 个档次给分。 2．评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量确定或调整档次， 最后给分。 3．词数少于 80 和多于 120 的，从总分中减去 2 分。 4．评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性、上下文的连贯性及 语言的得体性。 5. 拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。 6．如书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。 各档次的给分范围和要求： 第五档 （很好）：（21-25 分） 1. 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 2. 覆盖所有要点。 3. 应用了较多的语法结构和词汇。 4. 语法结构和词汇方面有些许错误，但因尽力使用较复杂的结构或较高级词汇所致。 5. 有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 6. 完全达到了预期的写作目的。 第四档（好）：（16-20 分） 1. 完全完成了试题规定的任务。 2. 虽漏掉 1—2 个次重点但覆盖所有主要内容。 3. 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 4. 语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。5. 应用简单语 句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 6. 达到了预期的写作目的。 第三档 （适当）：（11-15 分） 1. 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 2. 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖主要内容。 3. 应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务要求。 4. 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 5. 应用简单的语句间的连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 6. 整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。 第二档 ( 较差)：（6-10 分） 1. 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 2. 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 3. 语法结构单调，词汇知识有限。 4. 有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。 5. 较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。 6. 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。 第一档（差）：（0-5分） 1. 未完成试题规定的任务。 2. 明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。 3. 语法结构单调，词汇知识有限。 4. 较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误影响对写作内容的理解。 5. 缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 6. 信息未能传达给读者。 听力录音原文 Text 1 W: Shall I open the window? M: No, please don’t. I’m not hot. Are you all right? W: Well, this room is very small. I don’t feel very well in a small room. M: Let’s go outside then. Text 2 M: I’ve failed the exam. What shall I do? W: Don’t be so sad. What about going to a dance party or to the movies? That would cheer you up. Text 3 W: Good afternoon, sir. How may I help you? M: Hello, I’m Peter Brown. I just checked out this morning, but I left my mobile phone in my room. W: What’s your room number, please? Text 4 W: How long had you studied English before you came here? M: For three years in high school, but I didn’t learn much, because most time I spoke Chinese with others. It was kind of like the Spanish you learnt here in high school. Text 5 W: You mean it’s still not fixed? M: Not yet. Too bad it broke down on the hottest day of the year. And the really bad news is that I still have to buy a part in town before I can fix it. Text 6 W: When you were a kid, what was your dream? M: I wanted to be a businessman or a scientist. W: Really? Why? M: ⑥My dad is a businessman, and I wanted to be like him. W: Why did you want to be a scientist? M: I really liked science when I was young. W: Do you still like science now? M: Not really. W: Then what do you like? M: I’m not sure. Maybe travel. Text 7 W: I need to make a plane reservation. I need to fly to New York City. M: When will you leave? W: I need a flight on July 4th. M: You can fly out of Los Angeles International or Burbank Airport. Which do you prefer? W: I will fly out of whatever airport has the cheapest price. M: If you have a choice, what time of day would you prefer to fly? W: Any time is OK. I would like to be booked on the least expensive flight. Text 8 W: What time is it, William? M: Uh, it’s 7:30. ⑩Aren’t you going to finish your breakfast? W: ⑩I don’t have much time. I’ve got to go downtown today. M: If you’re coming into the city, we may as well have lunch together. W: OK. Let’s say one o’clock. I’ll go to the gym. I have an aerobics class until 12:15. And I have a hair appointment at 2:15. M: OK. What else are you doing today? W: Well, I’ll be meeting Maria to do some shopping at 9:30. M: Tough day! W: Well, it’s my day off, as you know. M: OK. Enjoy your morning. I’ll see you later. W: You’d better get going, too. You’re not even changed. M: Don’t worry about me. I’ll get to work on time. Text 9 W: Yeah, the traffic was terrible, and the weather, it took me ages to get here. I’ll just put my umbrella in the corner here, shall I? Anyway, I’m really sorry I’m late. M: Well, I’m glad you got here in the end. Now, we should probably get going as fast as we can, because I’ve got another interview at 12:00. Why do you want to work for us? W: Well, I’m a bit bored with the company I’m working with at the moment, so I’d really like a change. Your company is bigger, and the salary’s a lot better than the job I’ve got. Also, I like the unfixed working hours, because I find it really hard to get up in the morning! M: And where do you want to be in five years’ time? W: Australia, I hope! I don’t want to leave my family in the long term. I’m planning to stay in Britain for a year or two, but to be honest I really want to move somewhere hot and sunny, like Mexico. But my Mum won’t let me go. Text 10 M: Boys and girls, our school is an international language college. As you see, there are a lot of buildings on campus. The college used to have four departments—English, French, German and Russian. But there is now also a Chinese department. At the moment we’re outside your department, the English department, which is the largest department in the college. There are over 750 students in each grade and we have 350 teachers, including 150 professors. These teachers are from different countries, mainly from the USA and Canada, with a few from England and Australia. You’ll have all your classes here in this building and all the professors from Canada are working here, so you can talk with them in your spare time. Now, let’s walk over to the main library, which is the largest building in the college just next to the English department building. Ah, this is the main library. OK, let’s come to the next building—the dining hall, where you will have your meals every day.