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2020 年春季孝感重点高中联考协作体联考
高一英语试卷
考试时间:2020 年 *月* 日上午 试卷满分:150 分
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分 30 分)
第一节(共 5 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 7.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出
最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段
对话仅读一遍。
1. What does the man want to be?
A. A writer. B. A businessman. C. A lawyer.
2. What does the woman’s manager look like?
A. He is very tall. B. He has a clean face. C. He wears glasses.
3. What does the man advise the woman to do?
A. Buy a new computer. B. Save money from now on. C. Get her computer
repaired.
4. How does the woman usually go to work?
A. By subway. B. By bus. C. By car.
5. Which sport does the man like best?
A. Ping-Pong. B. Diving. C. Volleyball.
第二节(共 15 小题;每小题 1.5 分,满分 22.5 分)
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的 A、B、C 三
个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题 5 秒钟;
听完后,各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料,回答第 6、7 题。
6. Why doesn’t the man want to go to the shopping mall?
A.It is too noisy there. B. The air isn’t fresh there. C. It is too crowded there.
7. Where will the speakers most probably go?
A. To the cinema. B. To the swimming pool. C. To the library.
听第 7 段材料,回答第 8 至 10 题。
8. What makes the man happy the most while he is living in the countryside?
A.It’s very quiet. B. Villagers are friendly. C. Life is slow.
9. What does the man usually do on Saturday afternoon?
A. He usually goes shopping. B. He usually sees a film. C. He usually plays football.
10. How does the man make a living?
A. He depends on his parents.
B. He makes money on the farm.
C. He uses his own savings.
听第 8 段材料,回答第 11 至 13 题。
11. What does the man say about his wallet?
A. There is about $500 in it. B. It’s a black leather one. C. Some name cards are in
it.
12. Where did the man find that his wallet had gone?
A. In the bank. B. In the bakery. C. In the post office.
13. What does the man tell the woman at last?
A. His telephone number. B. His number at the hotel. C. His tour destination.
听第 9 段材料,回答第 14 至 17 题。
14. What time is it probably now?
A.4:30 pm. B. 4:00 pm. C. 3:30 pm.
15. Why does the man use the railway station?
A. To go sightseeing. B. To go on business trips. C. To visit his family.
16. How often does the man use the railway station?
A. Once a month. B. Twice a week. C. Once a week
17. How does the man usually get to the railway station?
A. By car. B. By taxi. C. By subway.
听第 10 段材料,回答第 18 至 20 题。
18. When was the restaurant first opened?
A. Over 10 years ago. B. Over 20 years ago. C. Over 40 years ago.
19. How many seats are there in the summer?
A. 210. B. 110. C. 100.
20. What was added to the restaurant in 2013?
A. A fireplace. B. Outdoor seating. C. A children’s play area.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分 50 分)
第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 37.5 分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的 A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中,选出最佳选项,并在答题
纸上将该项涂黑。
A
The UK's music festivals are world famous but there are plenty more to celebrate in the
country.
Burns Night, Scotland
On 25 January, Scots celebrate the life and works of Scotland's national poet Robert Burns
by holding a special Burns Supper. This can be a chance for friends to get together with a huge
formal dinner. Guests take it in turn to recite Burns' poems or sing one of his songs.
Hay Festival, Hay-on-Wye, Wales
For 10 days each May, the small town of Hay-on-Wye on the edge of the Brecon Beacons
National Park in Wales is filled with writers, filmmakers, musicians, and people who come to hear
them talk and exchange ideas. The festival celebrates great writing of all genres(体裁) and it all
takes place in a village in the town.
Camp Festival, Dorset
As a branch of a festival held in Dorset, it's one of the best family festivals in the UK. Held
every year in the grounds of the historic Lulworth Castle in Dorset, the festival includes top live
music acts, but as the organizers say, "kids are king" at Camp Festival, with a wide variety of
entertainment, workshops and fun for kids. The 2020 Camp Festival takes place from 25 to 28
July.
Guy Fawkes Day or "Bonfire Night"
All over the UK on 5 November, the British light bonfires and set off fireworks in their back
gardens or, more commonly these days, at organized events in public parks. They celebrate the
Catholic Guy Fawkes' failed attempt to blow up the Houses of Parliament ( 议 会 院 ) on 5
November,1605.
21.Which festivals are related to literature(文学)?
A. Hay Festival and Camp Festival. B. Burns Night and Hay Festival.
C. Burns Night and Guy Fawkes Day. D. Camp Festival and Guy Fawkes Day.
22.When does the festival most attractive to children take place?
A. In July. B. In May.
C. In January. D. In November.
23.What does Guy Fawkes Day celebrate?
A. An impressive building. B. A successful adventure.
C. An organized game. D. A historical event.
B
When David Carter started to study art at The University of Texas (UT)at Austin in 1971, he
had big dreams of becoming an artist or a writer. But his study came to a stop at 23 after he hurt
his hand in an unpleasant event. He developed schizophrenia(精神分裂症) later and spent many
years without a home.
Carter liked to spend time around UT, because he dreamt of being able to continue his study
in the university and becoming a writer. After running into Carter many times, UT student Ryan
Chandler decided to interview him for a project for the Daily Texan, the student newspaper of UT.
“I interviewed him on Austin’s homeless problems. After I heard his story, we kept in touch
and really became friends. I learned he wanted to get back to UT, so I decided to help him,” said
Chandler. “He had got 87 hours, very close to a degree. Now, with changing degree requirements,
he only has 64 hours to go.”
With the help of Chandler, who worked with the university office, Carter was assigned an
adviser by UT’s College of Fine Arts. “It' s the greatest gift I’ve ever received,” Carter said. “He
did what had to be done to get me back to school, and I couldn't have done it without him”
After seeing a magazine article about Carter, a UT schoolmate decided to pay his tuition fees
(学费)without telling Chandler his name.
Doug Dempster, dean of the College of Fine Arts, said in a statement, “David Carter's
decision to complete his degree is a testament ( 证 明 ) to finishing well what was started, and
stopped, even many years earlier. We welcome him back as we do for many students each year
whose education could not be completed easily. We’ re going to help him through his remaining
course work.”
24. Why did Carter stop studying in the university?
A. He hurt an artist. B. He couldn’t afford his study.
C. He had a hand injury. D. He got a strange disease.
25. What was Chandler’s purpose in interviewing Carter?
A. To know why he hung around UT.
B. To do a project on homelessness.
C. To make friends with a homeless person.
D. To finish his homework on helping others.
26. Which of the following words can best describe Chandler?
A. Warm-hearted. B. Honest.
C. Brave. D. Strong-minded.
27. What can we learn from Dempster’s words in the statement?
A. He encourages Carter to study hard.
B. He suggests other students learn from Carter.
C. He calls on other students to help Carter.
D. He supports students who never give up.
C
We all know the value of taking a walk in the fresh spring weather. It allows your mind to
relax and forget about the problems in everyday life. Studies have commonly shown the benefits
of being around green spaces, including gardens, city parks and forests.
But did you know that being close to these natural surroundings during childhood could
positively influence your mental health as an adult?
A study by the Barcelona Institute for Global Health (ISGlobal) surveyed 3,600 people from
all over Europe, including Spain, the Netherlands, Lithuania and the UK.
The all-adult study gave these volunteers a questionnaire (问卷) on how frequently they used
natural spaces during childhood – for example, playing in a garden, riding a bike at the park or
hiking in a forest. They were also asked about the importance they put on using such places.
Volunteers were then given a psychological test, which included a variety of problem-solving
activities, to learn about their mental state within a four-week period.
The results showed that the people who were more exposed (暴露的) to natural spaces had
higher mental health scores compared to those with lower childhood exposure.
According to the study, 73 percent of Europe’s population only has limited chance to natural
spaces. Mark Nieuwenhuijsen, director of ISGlobal’s Urban Planning, said that “Many children in
Europe lead an indoor lifestyle … so we call on policymakers to improve the availability (可得性)
of natural spaces for children.”
While this study was based in Europe, a lack of green space can affect anyone, anywhere. So,
remember to make time to immerse yourself in nature, as your mental health is just as important as
the physical one.
28. What was the purpose of the ISGlobal’s study?
A. To study the influence of childhood exposure to natural spaces.
B. To understand the mental health problems of children.
C. To see how childhood experiences shape adult life.
D. To examine the advantages of taking a walk.
29. What do we know about the study?
A. The volunteers included both children and adults.
B. The volunteers were from all over the world.
C. It was made up of a questionnaire and a psychological test.
D. It focused on the volunteers’ physical health state.
30. What does the underlined word “immerse” in the last paragraph probably mean?
A. understand something B. lose oneself in something
C. protect against something D. imagine doing something
31. Which of the following is the best title for the passage?
A. The benefits of green space B. mental health or physical health
C. outdoor lifestyle D. the value of taking a walk
D
There’s a reason humans have been building homes from wood for 10,000 years. It’s an
excellent building material. But since it’s not transparent (透明的), we’re still in the habit of
cutting windows in our houses.
But what if wood could be made transparent?
Researchers in Sweden have been trying to do just that. They’ve created a clear wood
material they hope could one day be used for more energy-saving building.
“We chemically made wood transparent”, says Celine Montanari, a researcher at the KTH
Royal Institute of Technology in Stockholm.
Montanari and her team took wood and removed its lignin( 木 质 素 ), and filled the
resulting micro holes with a special chemical. Then the wood looked rather like the frosted glass
of a shower door. They took the material one step further, mixing it with polyethylene glycol, a
material that melts at 80 degrees Fahrenheit. When it melts, it absorbs energy and becomes
transparent, then releases energy when cooled. In theory, this means the new wood material
could be used to make windows that absorb energy during the hot part of the day and release it
into the home when it gets cold at night. It makes the new wood an even more eco-friendly
material by keeping indoor temperatures constant.
This is not a new technique, says Mark Swihart, a professor at University at Buffalo.
Materials that store and release energy are not new either. “The thing that seems to be new is
their way of the energy storage.” Swihart says.
Using wood as a base material is attractive because it has strength that’s hard to reproduce
in other materials at the same cost, Swihart says. Whether or not the new transparent wood will
be successful will depend in large part on how cheaply it can be made, he says. It’s also difficult
to get new material widely used by the building industry, as there are existing supply chains for
things like glass.
Montanari and her team are currently looking at increasing the heat storage capacity(储热
性能)
of the transparent wood, for greater energy savings. They’re also studying how to increase
production to an industrial scale(规模). They hope to have a product ready for market within
five years.
32. What are researchers in Sweden trying to do?
A. Construct all-glass buildings.
B. Develop see-through wood.
C. Create new frosted glass for future buildings
D. Figure out the reason people use wood for buildings.
33. How is the fifth paragraph developed?
A. By giving example.
B. By analyzing reasons.
C. By describing processes
D. By making comparisons.
34. What does Swihart say about the invention of Montanari and her team?
A. It costs too much
B. It uses a brand-new technique.
C. It will face uncertainty in the market.
D. It will be widely used in the building industry.
35. What are Montanari and her team doing with their new invention now?
A. Making it cheaper.
B. Improving its performance.
C. Putting it into production.
D. Building a supply chain.
第二节(共 5 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 12.5 分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余
选项。
Mother’s Day is a time for children, young and old, to show how much they appreciate their
mothers. Mother’s Day started in the US, where it’s celebrated on the second Sunday in
May. 36
It became an official US holiday in 1915. It was the result of the love of one girl, Anna
Jarvis of West Virginia. 37 As a girl, Anna helped her mother take care of the garden and
filled it with white carnations (康乃馨), her mother’s favorite flower.
When Mrs. Jarvis died on May 5, 1905, Anna was determined to honor her. 38 On the
same Sunday in Philadelphia, a minister honored Mrs. Jarvis and all mothers with a special
Mother’s Day service. Anna Jarvis began writing to the government, asking them to set aside a
day to honor all mothers. In 1910, the governor of West Virginia made the second Sunday in May
Mother’s Day.
39 Other children give their mothers gifts that they’ve made themselves or bought from
stores. Adults give their mothers red carnations, the official Mother’s Day flower. White
carnations are placed on the graves of mothers who are no longer alive.
Mother’s Day is now celebrated in more than 40 countries, including Denmark, Finland,
Italy, and Australia. 40 In France, Mother’s Day is the last Sunday in May. A cake in the
shape of flowers is presented to mothers at a family dinner.
A. So why is it celebrated on different dates?
B. But do you know the origin of Mother’s Day?
C. Anna’s mother provided great support for the family.
D. But not all countries celebrate Mother’s Day at the same time.
E. The second Sunday in May was the Sunday closest to her mother’s death.
F. She asked the minister of her church to hold a special service in honor of her mother.
G. On the morning of Mother’s Day, some American children serve their mothers breakfast in
bed.
第三部分 语言运用(共两节, 满分 30 分)
第一节 (共 15 小题;每小题 1 分, 满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文, 从每题所给的 A、B、C 和 D 四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Luke is a cute dog, living together with me for five years. We get lots of 41 in our area
during the summer season. Many forests are badly 42 by fire each year. That hot summer, not
far from our shelter, a forest 43 fire. It was July, and there had been a heat wave going on
for three days.
Somehow, Luke rushed toward the forest. There was no longer any hope at that moment to
wait for Luke to come back to the 44 . In fact, I was waiting for firefighters to tell me that he
had 45 in the forest. Suddenly, a fireman burst into my office and 46 me that Luke had
succeeded in saving four kittens who had been 47 by the flames. I 48 accompanied the
fireman to the forest to get him back. 49 we got to the scene of the incident, we didn’t see Luke.
Then we heard the 50 of a dog barking in the forest. I 51 the barks as Luke’s. The
firemen 52 the tracks of the dog until they found him barking loudly by the side of an injured
53 . Thanks to Luke, four kittens and a fireman were saved. This true story shows us that pets
are loving, caring and compassionate. We should love and 54 them. Little animals can
do 20 things for humans.
41. A. rain B. sun C. noise D. fires
42. A. damaged B. removed C. changed D. treated
43. A. made B. caught C. set D. burned
44. A. forest B. house C. area D. shelter
45. A. lost B. died C. appeared D. remained
46. A. warned B. reminded C. informed D. promised
47. A. buried B. trapped C. controlled D. swallowed
48. A. immediately B. slightly C. approximately D. particularly
49. A. Since B. Unless C. When D. Until
50. A. call B. shout C. voice D. sound
51. A. understood B. recognized C. treated D. realized
52. A. recorded B. noticed C. followed D. wanted
53. A. fireman B. doctor C. farmer D. teacher
54. A. save B. raise C. protect D. hate
55. A. fun B. enormous C. little D. risky
第二节 语法填空(共 10 小题;每小题 1.5 分, 满分 15 分)
阅读下面短文, 在空白处填入 1 个恰当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
We often like new things—new clothes, new phones, new furniture. But when it comes to
cities, older is often better. This is 56.______ (certain) true of Montreal, one of Canada’s oldest
cities.
Begin your visit with Mount Royal, the 57.______ (high) point in the city. At various
viewing 58.________ (point) you can see and photograph much of the city below. If your visit is
in the fall, enjoy Montreal’s glorious autumn colors. The foliage ( 树 叶 ) on every tree will be
bright red, orange, yellow and purple. But at any time of year, you will likely meet people
59.______ (speak)many languages from many backgrounds.
The road down from Mount Royal 60.______ (pass) through McGill University, one of
Canada’s top schools. Below McGill is the Golden Square Mile,61_______ is a great area for
walking tour. If it is too hot 62.______ too cold outside, you can walk Montreal’s more than 32
kilometers of underground streets.
63._____ you may not want to miss is to wander in the Old Port of Montreal district, ride the
huge Observation Wheel for wonderful views of the city and look for huge “Grand Chapiteau”, or
circus tent 64.______ (see) Cirque du Soleil’s travelling shows. Each show carries with it
65._______ unique feeling. It’s a flavor of the historic city, Montreal.
第四部分 写作(共两节, 满分 40 分)
第一节(满分 15 分)
假定你是李华,你原打算参加朋友 Mary 的生日聚会,但是因故未能参加。请用英语给
她写一封电子邮件,内容包括:
1. 表示道歉;2. 解释原因。
注意:1. 字数 80 个字左右;
2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。
Dear Mary,
Y
o
u
r
s
,
L
i
H
u
a
第二节(满分 25 分)
阅读下面材料,根据其内容和所给段落开头语续写两段,使之构成一篇完整的短文。
续写的词数应为 150 左右。
I think about him every time I pass by a pink magnolia(木兰)tree in bloom(开花). My
Irish granddaddy, tall and thin, bursting with energy and laughter, held a special place in my heart.
He lived across the street with Grandma, and their home was open to us whenever we ran over to
visit. We wouldn’t go into their home to find him. however, we would run to the backyard where
he would be working in his garden.
Flowers, vegetables—whatever he planted grew well. From early spring through late
autumn, the backyard exploded with colors.
On the side of the yard grew two apple trees and a small pear tree. A high magnolia tree
stood in the middle. Its shiny, dark green leaves and large pink flowers attracted the attention of
all who saw it. Besides being beautiful, it was perfect for climbing, but I didn’t know how to
climb it!
My granddaddy wanted to teach me. He really tried. But I was afraid I wouldn’t be able to
get back down, or that I would get stuck high up in the tree, so I didn’t want to try.
Except that I did want to try. One early spring morning, granddaddy was standing on his
porch (门廊)waiting for me when I walked outside. “Come over here” he said excitedly. “The
tree is blooming lollipops(棒棒糖) instead of flowers!”
“What?” I ran across to the backyard to see a wonderful sight. “No pink magnolia flowers this
year,” he said sadly as he shook his head.” They’ll all turn brown and drop down. What a waste
that will be. But this is the first year ever for our tree to bloom lollipops!”
He looked at me. “Do you think you could climb up the tree— just to the lowest branch —
and gather one or two? Then throw them down to me. I would love a lollipop!”
Paragraph 1:
I was staring in amazement.
_______________________________________________________________________________
_____
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________
Paragraph 2:
I climbed down and burst into the kitchen, hands tightly holding my treasures.
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________
____________________
- 1 -
2020 年春季孝感重点高中联考协作体联考
高一英语试卷
英语答案及评分标准
第一部分 听力(共 20 小题,每小题 1.5 分,满分 30 分)
1-5 ABABB 6-10 ACACB 11-15 ABBCB 16-20 CACAA
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分 50 分)
第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 2.5 分,满分 37.5 分)
21-23 BAD 24-27 CBAD 28-31 ACBA 32-35 BCCB
第二节(每小题 2.5 分,满分 12.5 分)
36-40 BCFGD
第三部分 语言运用(共两节, 满分 30 分)
第一节 (共 15 小题;每小题 1 分, 满分 15 分)
41-45 DABDB 46-50 CBACD 51-55 BCACB
第二节(每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
56. certainly 57. highest 58. points 59. speaking 60. passes
61. which 62. or 63. What 64. to see 65. a
第四部分 写作(共两节, 满分 40 分)
第一节(满分 15 分)
【范文】
Dear Mary,
I am writing to apologize for being absent at your birthday party. I feel extremely sorry
about it and I want to explain to you what has happened.
This morning I twisted my ankle while going downstairs and was sent to hospital. The doctor
suggested that I have a week’s rest in bed. It’s a great pity that I couldn’t attend your party.
Anyway,
best wishes to you and once again, please accept my sincere apology.
Yours,
Lihua
第二节(满分 25 分) - 2 -
【范文】
Paragraph 1:
I was staring in amazement. Never had I seen a tree full of my favorite candy! I carefully
placed my feet on the lowest branch and picked two lollipops. Just as I was about to slide down. I
saw some lollipops on a higher branch. So I climbed up to the next branch. And slowly, branch by
branch, I reached the top of the tree. I looked down and saw Granddaddy smiling at me. “You did
it, girl!” he called up to me. “That was fun!” I said excitedly.
Paragraph 2:
I climbed down and burst into the kitchen, hands tightly holding my treasures. “Look at what
I just picked from the tree!” I said to Grandma and Mom. “That’s amazing, sweetie!” Grandma
replied. “But how did that tree bloom lollipops instead of flowers?” I asked Grandma. “Did you
know that your granddaddy is an expert at climbing? This morning I saw him…” Grandma
stopped
mid-sentence and smiled when she saw Mom shake her head. “You know, sweetie. He can make
anything grow—even lollipops on trees!”
答案解析
第一部分:录音原文
(Text 1)
W: I want to be a lawyer. What do you want to be, a businessman like your father?
M: No. I want to be a writer and tell children beautiful stories.
(Text 2)
M: Isn’t that your manager over there? That man wearing glasses, with the long beard.
W: No. My manager isn’t that tall and has a very clean face.
(Text 3)
W: I don’t want to get my computer repaired again. I want to buy another one, but I’m not sure
whether to buy a new one or a second⁃hand one.
M: In the long run, I think buying a new one will save you money.
(Text 4)
M: Do you go to work by subway every day?
W: Well, I usually take the bus, but one of the roads the bus usually takes is under repair right
now. I really don’t want to get stuck in a traffic jam.
M: Would you consider buying a bike?
(Text 5)
W: Did you watch the women’s volleyball match last night? The Chinese team never let us down
once.
M: Absolutely, and Ma Long’s performance in the ping⁃pong match was very good, too.
W: Yes. By the way, which event is your favorite?
M: Diving. - 3 -
(Text 6)
W: It’s so hot! We need to get out of here.
M: I agree. Shall we go to the cinema? We can enjoy a film in an air⁃conditioned room.
W: But the air is not fresh there. How about going to the shopping mall?
M: I’d really rather not. It’s so noisy there.
W: Then let’s go to the swimming pool.
M: But it will be so crowded there at this time of day.
W: Well, do you have any ideas?
M: Let’s go to the library. I can read my favorite science fiction book there and you can enjoy
your favorite — drama.
W: Sounds good — though it’s poems that I like best.
(Text 7)
M: I’m so glad I live in the countryside.
W: Why?
M: The life is slow here and the villagers are so friendly, but best of all, I like the quiet of the
countryside.
W: But living in the countryside isn’t convenient. How do you shop for the things you need?
M: That’s easy. I spend every Saturday in town. In the morning, I do some shopping. In the
afternoon, I play football with my friends who live in town. In the evening, I go to the
cinema and enjoy a film.
W: Sounds like a good plan. But how do you cover your everyday spending?
M: You mean the money? By working, of course! You thought I still depend on my parents’
money,
didn’t you?
W: Yes. I didn’t think your savings could last this long.
M: I help the villagers work on their farms and they pay me for my work.
W: Really? That’s cool!
(Text 8)
W: What can I do for you, sir?
M: I seem to have lost my wallet.
W: I see. I’ll have to fill out a lost⁃and⁃found report for you. What is it like, sir?
M: It’s a brown leather one, with a driver’s license, some credit cards, and about $500in it.
W: Where did you last have it?
M: I’m sure I had it when I was in the bank.
W: Where did you go after that?
M: To the post office and then to a bakery. When I was about to pay for a cake in the bakery, I
found my wallet was gone.
W: I’m sure it will turn up. Could I have your name, address and number?
M: My name is Pierre Brown. I am a tourist here. I’m staying in the Hilton Hotel. - 4 -
W: OK. What is your telephone number?
M: 63324656, or you can also get me at the hotel. The number there is 881808.
(Text 9)
W: Excuse me. I’m doing a survey on this high⁃speed railway station. Would you mind answering
some questions?
M: Certainly not. My train was supposed to arrive at 4:00 pm, but it won’t come now until 5:00
pm. So I have one and a half hours to answer your questions!
W: Thanks. Could you tell me where you’re going and why you’re going there? For sightseeing
or for visiting your family?
M: No. I’m going to Manhattan on business.
W: OK. Can you tell me how often you use the railway station?
M: I use it every Monday.
W: What do you think of the new restaurant?
M: I really have no idea. I haven’t eaten there yet. I usually eat at the restaurant across from the
railway station.
W: So how do you usually get to the railway station: by taxi or subway?
M: Neither. I drive here and park my car in the railway station parking lot.
(Text 10)
Restaurant Arlen is a family restaurant with over 40 years of tradition. It was opened by my
grandparents over 40 years ago. Twenty years later, my parents took over, and now my husband
and I are running it. We are located on the main road at the entrance of the town, near the town
sports hall, in the midst of many beautiful trees, a perfect location for group, family and business
lunches and dinners. We offer not only delicious food but also live music. Our restaurant has
two rooms with 110 seats, as well as space for 100 seats outdoors in the summer, where guests
can hold dances. In 2013, our restaurant was completely restored and had a fireplace put in,
so during the winter months our restaurant is a place to warm both the body and the soul. In 2016,
a children’s play area was added to the restaurant. I would like to welcome you to come and try
our food and enjoy our unique environment. I can guarantee that you won’t be disappointed.
第二部分 阅读(共两节,满分 50 分)
A
【语篇解读】本文是应用文。文章介绍了英国的四个节日的相关信息。
21.选 B 细节理解题。根据 Burns Night, Scotland“Scots celebrate the life and works of
Scotland's national poet Robert Burns. Guests take it in turn to recite Burns' poems…”,Hay
Festival, Hay-on-Wye, Wales “filled with writers, filmmakers,.... The festival celebrates
great writing of all genres…”, 可知选 B。 - 5 -
22.选 A 细节理解题。根据 Camp Festival, Dorset “kids are king” at Camp Festival, with a
wide variety of entertainment, workshops and fun for kids. The 2020 Camp Festival takes
place from 25 to 28 July, 可知选 A。
23.选 D 细节理解题。根据“They celebrate the Catholic Guy Fawkes' failed attempt to blow
up the Houses of Parliament(议会院)on 5 November,1605,” 可知选 D。
B
【语篇解读】本文是记叙文,主要讲述了一位怀抱艺术梦想的青年 David Carter,在一次不
愉快事件中伤着了他的右手,因此他无法继续学业,后来又患上精神分裂症,在流浪多年
之后经过热心校友及学校领导的帮助和支持重返学校,实现自己的艺术梦想的故事。
24.选 C 细节理解题。根据文中第一段“But his study came to a stop at 23 after he hurt his
hand in an unpleasant event.” 可知他的手的受伤,让他终止了学业。
25.选 B 细节理解题。根据文中第二段“After running into Carter many times…. the student
newspaper of UT.” 和第三段,“I interviewed him on Austin’s homeless problems. After I
heard his story, ...” said Chandler.可知,Chandler 采访 Carter 的初衷是想为校报完成一
个关于奥斯丁无家可归的人的一个项目,故选 B。
26.选 A 推理判断题。根据文中第三段 “...After I heard his story, we kept in touch…. so I
decided to help him,”said Chandler.以及第四段 With the help of Chandler… couldn't have
done it without him” 可知,Chandler 是个非常热心的人, 故 A 项正确。
27.选 D 推理判断题。根据文中最后一段 Dempster 所说的“David Carter's decision … his
remaining course work.”可知,他非常欣赏和支持像 Carter 这样人,勇于追求梦想,永不
言弃, 故选 D。
C
【语篇解读】本文是说明文。研究表明童年亲近自然,成年心理更健康。
28.选 A 细节理解题。根据文中第二段“But did you know that being in contact with these
natural surroundings during childhood could positively impact your mental health as an adult?”
可知,该研究旨在探索童年时期接触自然对成年人心理健康的影响,故选 A。
29.选 C 推理判断题。根据第 4-5 段可知,该研究包括一个调查问卷(The all-adult study
gave participants a questionnaire…),以及一个心理测试(Volunteers were then given a
psychological test),故选 C。
30.选 B 词义猜测题。联系上下文可知,此处表达的意思是要多接触自然,immerse 意思
是“沉浸在……”,可知选B(lose oneself in)。 - 6 -
31.选 A 标题概括题。文章主要探究童年时期接触自然对成年人心理健康的影响,研究表
明童年时期接触大自然越多,成年时期得心理方面的疾病就越少,强调多接近大自然的
好处。故选 A。
D
【语篇解读】本文是说明文。透明木材不仅满足人们对光线的需求还可以节约能源。
32.选 B 细节理解题。根据第三段中“Researchers in Sweden have been trying to do just
that. They’ve created a clear wood material they hope could one day be used for more energy-
saving building.”可知,瑞典的研究者正在研发透明木材。
33.选 C 细节理解题。根据第五段中“took wood and removed its lignin... Then the wood
looked…They took the material one step further”可知,第五段主要讲述了研发这种透明
木材的过程。
34.选 C 推理判断题。根据倒数第二段中的“Whether or not the new transparent wood will
be successful will depend in large part on how cheaply it can be made, he says. It’s also
difficult to get new material widely used by the building industry, as there are existing supply
chains for things like glass.”可推知,透明木材的市场前景面临着诸多不确定性。
35.选 B 细节理解题。根据最后一段中的“Montanari and her team are currently looking at
increasing the heat storage capacity(储热性能) of the transparent wood, for greater energy
savings.”可知,Montanari 与她的团队正在研究这种木材的储热能力,使其更加节省
能源。
第二节(每小题 2.5 分,满分 12.5 分)
【语篇解读】本文是说明文。文章主要介绍了母亲节的起源及习俗。
36.选 B 联系下文讲的是母亲节的起源,故选 B 项。
37.选 C 根据下文中 Anna 从小就很体谅母亲爱母亲,在花园里种上母亲最喜欢的康乃馨。
由此可推断她是感恩于母亲为这个家的付出。
38.选 F 母亲死后,她求助于牧师为她的母亲主办一场圣礼,而后引发了费城的另一位牧
师对她的母亲以及天下所有的母亲进行纪念。
39.选 G 本段主要讲述人们庆祝母亲节的方式。
40.选 D 母亲节的法定时间因国而异,一般是在五月的第二个星期天,但是法国母亲节却
是在五月的最后一个星期天。
第三部分 语言运用(共两节, 满分 30 分)
第一节(共 15 小题;每小题 1 分, 满分 15 分)
【语篇解读】本文为记叙文。文章主要讲述了在一场森林大火中宠物狗 Luke 英勇救了被- 7
-
困在大火里的四只猫和一名消防员。
41.选 D 由下文可知夏天时有很多森林大火。
42.选 A 森林在大火中当然是损毁(damage)严重。
43.选 B 根据语境可知这里表示森林着火了 make fire 生火; catch fire 着火; set fire 纵
火,
放火;没有 burn fire 这一搭配。
44.选 D 由上文“not far from our shelter”,Luke 冲向了猛烈的大火中,所以作者认为它没
有希望回来了。shelter 安全场所,避难所。
45.选 B 前面提到作者对于 Luke 回来已经不抱希望,所以他其实是在等着消防队向他宣
布 Luke 在森林中身亡的消息。
46.选 C 根据语境可知,消防员突然出现,是为了告知关于 Luke 的消息。warned 警告;
reminded 提醒;informed 告知,通知; promised 答应,允诺。
47.选 B 这里表示 Luke 救了四只被困在(trapped)大火里的猫。buried 埋藏;controlled
控制;swallowed 吞噬,如果猫被大火吞噬,就救不出来了。
48.选 A 作者听到关于 Luke 的消息,立刻( immediately)随同消防员赶往森林。
49 选 C 到达事故现场时,作者并没看见 Luke 的身影。
50.选 D sound 可以用来形容大自然的一切声音,这里用来形容狗叫声。Vo i c e 常用来
形容
人的声音;call/shout 通常都用来形容人的叫喊。
51.选 B 听到狗叫声,作者就认出了是 Luke 在叫。recognize … as … 认出……是……。
52.选 C 认出了是 Luke 的声音以后,消防员们就跟随它的踪迹去找它,最后发现它在一
个受伤的消防员旁边大声吠叫,follow 表示“跟随”,最符合语境。
53.选 A 根据下文在这场火灾中 Luke 救了四只猫和一名消防员。
54.选 C 上文提到了宠物的可贵之处,因此我们应该爱护他们。
55.选 B 小动物也能为人类做大贡献。
第二节(每小题 1.5 分,满分 15 分)
【语篇解读】本文是说明文。文章介绍了加拿大有着悠久历史的旅游胜地蒙特利尔市的旅
游景点。
56. certainly 考查副词。设空处做状语,表示“肯定,一定”,故填 certainly。
57. highest 考查形容词。根据前面 the 可知应填最高级。
58. points 考查名词单复数。由前面的 various 可知应填名词复数。
59. speaking 考查分词做定语。 people 与 speak 是逻辑上的主动关系,因此用现在分词做
定语。
60. passes 考查主谓一致。 由主语是 the road 所以谓语动词单数。 - 8 -
61. which 考查关系词。设空处为非限制性定语从句,先行词指物且在从句中作主语,故填
which。
62. or 考查连接词。 根据句意“太热或者太冷”可知应填 or。
63. What 考查连接词。What 引导主语从句。
64. to see 考查不定式作目的状语。
65. a 考查不定冠词。unique 首字母发辅音音素,故填 a。
第四部分 写作(共两节, 满分 40 分)
应用文写作评分标准
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为 15 分,按五个档次进行评分。
2. 评分时,应主要从内容组织、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑,具体为:
(1) 对内容要点的覆盖情况以及表述的清楚程度和合理性。
(2) 使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
(3) 上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3. 评分时,先根据作答的整体情况初步确定其所属档次,然后以该档次的要求来综合衡量,
确定或调整档次,最后给分。
4. 评分时还应注意:
(1) 词数少于 60 或多于 100 的,从总分中减去 2 分。
(2) 单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面,评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考
虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(3) 书写较差以致影响交际的,将分数降低一个档次。
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
档次 描述
第五档:(13-15 分) 能写明全部要点;语言基本无误;行文连贯,表达清楚;
第四档:(10-12 分) 能写明全部或绝大部分要点;语言有少量错误;行文不够连贯, 表
达基本清楚;
第三档:(7-9 分) 能写明基本要点;语言虽有较多错误,但能基本达意;
第二档:(4-6 分) 能写出部分要点;语言错误多,影响意思表达;
第一档:(1-3 分) 只能写出一两个要点;语言错误很多,只有个别句子正确。
读后续写评分标准
一、评分原则
1. 本题总分为 25 分,按七个档次进行评分。
2. 评分时,应主要从内容、词汇语法和篇章结构三个方面考虑,具体为: - 9 -
(1) 续写内容的质量、完整性以及与原文情境的融洽度。
(2) 所使用词汇和语法结构的准确性、恰当性和多样性。
(3) 上下文的衔接和全文的连贯性。
3. 评分时,应先根据作答的整体情况确定其所属的档次,然后以该档次的要求来综合衡
量,确定或调整档次,最后给分。
4. 评分时还应注意:
(1) 词数少于 120 的,酌情扣分;
(2) 书写较差以致影响交际的,酌情扣分;
(3) 单词拼写和标点符号是写作规范的重要方面,评分时应视其对交际的影响程度予以考
虑,英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
- 10 -
二、各档次的给分范围和要求
档次 描述
第七档
(22—25 分)
——创造了新颖、丰富、合理的内容,富有逻辑性,续写完整,与原文情
境融洽度高;
——使用了多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构,表达流畅,语言错误很少,且
完全不影响理解;
——自然有效地使用了段落间、语句间衔接手段,全文结构清晰,前后呼
应,意义连贯。
第六档
(18—21 分)
——创造了比较丰富、合理的内容,比较有逻辑性,续写比较完整,与原
文情境融洽度较高;
——使用了比较多样且恰当的词汇和语法结构,表达比较流畅,有个别错
误,但不影响理解;[ ]
——比较有效地使用了语句间衔接手段,全文结构比较清晰,意义比较连
贯。
第五档
(15—17 分)
——创造了基本合理的内容,有一定的逻辑性,续写基本完整,与原文情
境相关;
——使用了比较恰当的词汇和语法结构,表达方式不够多样性,表达有些
许错误,但基本不影响理解;
——使用了语句间衔接手段,全文结构比较清晰,意义比较连贯。
第四档
(11—14 分)
——创造了基本完整的故事内容,但有的情节不够合理或逻辑性不强,与
原文情境基本相关;
——使用了简单的词汇和语法结构,有部分语言错误和不恰当之处,个别
部分影响理解;
——尚有语句衔接的意识,全文结构基本清晰,意义基本连贯。
第三档
(6—10 分)
——内容和逻辑上有一些重大问题,续写不够完整,与原文有一定程度脱
节;
——所用的词汇有限,语法结构单调,错误较多且比较低级,影响理解;
——未能有效地使用语句间衔接手段,全文结构不够清晰,意义欠连贯。
第二档
(1— 5 分)
——内容和逻辑上有较多重大问题,或有部分内容抄自原文,续写不完
整,与原文情境基本脱节;
——所使 用的词汇非常有限,语法结构单调,错误极多,严重影响理解;
——几乎没有使用语句间衔接手段,全文结构不清晰,意义不连贯。
第一档
(0 分)
——未作答;所写内容太少或无法看清以致无法评判;所写内容全部抄自
原文或与题目要求完全不相关。 - 11 -