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2017-2018学年湖北省华中师大一附中高二上学期期中考英语试题
第I卷
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
做题时,先将答案标在试卷上,录音内容结束后,你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案转涂到答题卡上。
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话,每段对话后有一个小题。从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. How long does the woman suggest spending at the beach?
A. Two months. B. Half a month. C. One week.
2. What is the man’s attitude towards the woman’s remarks?
A. Angry. B. Surprised. C. Disappointed.
3. When will the speakers see the performance on Saturday?
A. At 3:00 p.m. B. At 7:00 p.m. C. At 8:00 p.m.
4. Where is Mr. Davies now?
A. At home. B. In his office. C. On his way to office.
5. What are the speakers talking about?
A. An article of clothing. B. A clothes shop. C. A friend.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对活或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项,并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话,回答第6和第7两个小题。
6. Who deals with deliveries in the company at present?
A. Jennings. B. Eric George. C. Tom Smith.
7. When will the package be delivered?
A. Next Tuesday. B. Next Monday. C. Today.
听下面一段对话,回答第8和第9两个小题。
8. What made the woman angry the other day?
A. She waited an hour for a bus.
B. She didn’t get on a bus at rush hour.
C. She had waited long when three buses arrived together.
9. How does Tony Berelli go to work?
A. By bus. B. On foot. C. By subway.
听下面一段对话,回答第10至第12三个小题。
10. What does the man want the woman to do?
A. Arrange an appointment for him. B. Introduce a new product to him. C. Repair a mobile phone for him.
11. What does the man say about the new battery?
A. It’s expensive. B. It’s very light. C. It lasts long.
12. What is the probable relationship between the woman and Linda?
A. Job hunter and manager. B. Employee and employer. C. Customer and shopkeeper.
听下面一段对话,回答第13至第16四个小题。
13. What is the woman probably?
A. A salesgirl. B. A librarian. C. A waitress.
14. Why does the man want to change the CD?
A. It is broken. B. His mum bought it wrong. C. He doesn’t like it any more.
15. What does the man want to exchange the CD for?
A. A computer game. B. The first CD by Chaos Theory. C. The latest CD by Chaos Theory.
16. What is needed to change the CD?
A. The receipt. B. The manager’s approval. C. The purchaser’s signature.
听下面一段独白,回答第17至第20四个小题。
17. Where will the Christmas tree be put up?
A. At the school gate. B. In the school hall. C. In the schoolyard.
18. What is “the big day”?
A. Christmas Day. B. The school open day. C. The anniversary day.
19. Which activity will Donald Eaton take part in?
A. A talent show. B. A singing competition. C. A Christmas card competition.
20. How long will the activities last?
A. Six hours. B. Seven hours. C. Eight hours.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(共15小题:每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A
Family bicycle outings arc a great way to get the kids outside for fresh air, exercise, and contact with nature. Quiet neighborhood streets make a great place for kids to ride, but the many bike paths and rail trails (old railroad lines converted (转变) to public use) popping up around the nation make an even better choice. These paths often pass through parks with plenty of wildlife and scenic views. In urban areas, they can make a great way to explore a town or a city while staying off the roads. And the hills arc never too steep on “rail trails”, making these a great option for families with small children.
Another great thing about paved bike paths is that just about any bike will do. As your kids get older and want to take on greater distances, you should consider graduating from ‘‘department store bikes” to name brand bikes which arc often lighter, and longer lasting.
When biking with kids, remember to keep it fun, keep the distances short enough so the little ones don’t become tired or bored, and be ready to stop regularly for whatever they spot along the way.
More tips for riding with kids:
• Wear helmets.
• Make sure the bikes are in good working order, with tires inflated (充气) properly.
• Stop for fun and snacks along the way.
• Bring water, since drinking fountains can be scarce.
• Teach young ones to ride to the right and stop at stop signs.
• Slow for pedestrians and warn when approaching from behind (a bike bell is great for this).
• Larry Hogue has written numerous articles on outdoor recreation and is the author of All the Wild and Lonely Places: Journeys in a Desert Landscape. His ever-expanding guide to Michigan cycling can be found at lawrcncchoguc.net. You can simply click the link here.
21. Why are bike paths and rail trails good for kids riding?
A. Because they are the safest for kids.
B. Because they are in quiet neighborhood.
C. Because they are very popular around the nation.
D. Because they are a great way to enjoy beautiful scenery.
22. What may cause danger during the riding with kids?
A. Bringing snacks. B. Stopping for fun.
C. Riding to the left. D. Fastening a bike bell on the bicycle.
23. Where can you find this passage?
A. In a bike shopping guide. B. In a trip guide book.
C. In a fitness magazine. D. In a family relationship website.
B
Every year, in the first week of October, a very few lucky scientists get a phone call. On the other end of the line is someone with a Swedish accent who informs them they have won a Nobel Prize. Almost instantly, these individuals become celebrities. They will give talks, go to fancy parties and meet the King of Sweden.
But why is it such a big deal? The awards are named for an inventor, Alfred Nobel. During his life, he was best known for inventing dynamite, a type of explosive which made him a wealthy man. And when he died in 1896, Nobel left money to establish five yearly awards - the Nobel Prizes. In his will, Nobel directed that one award went to recognize outstanding literature. Another two should reward the promoting of international peace and scientific discovery (in physics, chemistry and medicine). All five awards would come with a cash prize. If there are two winners in a category, they split the money equally. If there are three, one person gets half the money, and the other two split the other half.
The first set of Nobel Prizes was handed out in 1901. Now, it is reckoned the best known prize worldwide. Every year, thousands of scientists around the world are invited to nominate (提名) people for a Nobel Prize. But no one can nominate themselves. Nominees for different kinds of prizes are evaluated by professional committees consisting of experts in the corresponding field. These committees narrow the list of candidates. Their short lists then move on to a selection committee for each subject. Those committees vote on who will receive the prize — or whether no one should receive it.
Even scientists who participated in a discovery might not win a Nobel. The committees that initially set the prize rules decided that a maximum of three people in any category could win each year. Now, scientists often work in large groups to make major discoveries. When a committee can’t find just a few scientists to get the credit, no one might receive a Nobel Prize for this achievement.
24. What do we know about a Nobel Prize winner?
A. He will get a cash prize that he must share with other participants equally.
B. He will be a person who makes great contributions to the field of mathematics.
C. He will rocket to fame all over the world because of his outstanding achievements.
D. He will be informed by a phone call or an e-mail at the very beginning of October.
25. Which of the following words can replace the underlined word “reckoned” in the third paragraph?
A. Suspected. B. Considered. C. Required. D. Imagined.
26. What can we learn from the passage?
A. The nominees in the same discovery consist of three people at least.
B. A selection committee will have the authority to list some candidates.
C. Scientists making a discovery will not necessarily be guaranteed a Nobel.
D. The King of Sweden is responsible to evaluate nominees in different fields.
27. What is the purpose of writing the passage?
A. To tell a story of a Nobel Prize winner. B. To clarify the rules of the Nobel Prize.
C. To classify the awards of the Nobel Prize. D. To give an introduction to the Nobel Prize.
C
Despite its importance for health and well-being, many American adults find it difficult to consistently get enough sleep. Approximately 50 to 70 million Americans suffer from a sleep disorder nowadays. Sleep disturbances arc particularly common in older adults and involve a variety of problems including staying asleep, interrupted breathing and restless leg syndrome (综合症状). A person’s racial background can influence their likelihood of developing a sleep disorder, with a greater number of African Americans reporting sleep disturbances compared to White Americans.
Beyond its effects on health, not getting enough sleep can lead to car accidents, medical errors, or other mistakes on the job. To encourage better sleep, the medical community encourages adults to engage in good “sleep hygiene’’ such as limiting or avoiding caffeine and nicotine, avoiding naps during the day, turning off electronics an hour before bed, exercising, and practicing relaxation before bedtime. It is also well-known that mental health is closely linked to sleep and insomnia (失眠症) is more common in people suffering from depression or anxiety.
A recent study now raises the possibility that sleep could be affected by the degree to which someone feels like their life is purposeful or meaningful. The researchers found that people reported having a greater sense of purpose in life were also reported higher quality sleep on a regular basis, as well as fewer symptoms of sleep disorders - even when taking into consideration age, gender, race, and level of education. Importantly, the researchers found that their findings held true for both the White Americans and African Americans who participated in the study.
But it is important to emphasize that this study only looked at the association between a sense of purpose and
better sleep - the findings cannot say for sure that having a greater sense of purpose causes one to sleep better. An alternative interpretation for the findings is that people who have a greater sense of purpose also tend to have better physical and mental health, which in turn, explains their higher quality sleep.
28. What do we know about sleep disturbances?
A. They are mainly influenced by different races.
B. They are more likely to happen on White Americans.
C. They are particularly common in younger generation.
D. They are likely to lead to a higher risk of a sleep disorder.
29. Which of the following can help people encourage better sleep?
A. Watching a thrill movie and having great fun.
B. Leaving electronics on for an hour or so at night.
C. Having a short break during the day to be more active.
D. Exercising and practicing relaxation before going to bed.
30. What may happen to people having great sense of purpose?
A. They may enjoy a better sleep quality.
B. They may face problems of sleep disorders.
C. They may make a quick adjustment to diseases.
D. They may suffer from their worse physical health.
31. What can we infer from the passage?
A. People having great sense of purpose will be less likely to sleep better.
B. African Americans have less sleep disturbances than White Americans.
C. Better physical and mental health will greatly contribute to better sleep.
D. Sleep quality is largely decided by one’s age, gender, race and education.
D
On Friday evening last I received from His Majesty the mission to form a new administration.
It was the evident will of Parliament and the nation that this should be taken into account on the broadest possible basis and that it should include all parties. I have already completed the most important part of this task. It was necessary that this should be done in one single day on account of the extreme urgency and hardship of events.
The appointment of other Ministers usually takes a little longer. I trust when Parliament meets again this part of my task will have been completed and that the administration will be complete in all respects.
I now invite the House to record its approval of the steps taken and declare its confidence in the new government.
To form an administration of this scale and complexity is a serious undertaking in itself. But we are in the preliminary Phase (预备阶段) of one of the greatest battles in history. We are in action at any other points and we have to be prepared in the Mediterranean. The air battle is continuing, and many preparations have to be made here at home.
In this crisis I think I may be pardoned if I do not address the House today, and I hope that any of my friends and colleagues who are affected by the political reconstruction will make all allowances (体谅) for any lack of ceremony with which it has been necessary to act.
I say to the House as I said to Ministers who have joined this government, I have nothing to offer but blood, efforts, tears and sweat. We have before us a painful period of the most miserable kind. We have before us many, many months of struggle and suffering.
You ask, what is our aim I can answer in one word? It is victory. Victory at all costs — victory in spite of all terrors — victory, however long and hard the road may be, for without victory there is no survival.
I feel entitled at this juncture, at this time, to claim the aid of all and to say, Come then, let us go forward together with our united strength.
32. In which situation does the new administration form according to the speech?
A. With the support of all parties.
B. At a time of national celebration.
C. In time of crisis and extreme urgency.
D. During the war with countries in the Mediterranean.
33. What does the underlined expression “a serious undertaking” mean in Para 5?
A. A risky activity. B. A challenging job.
C. A formal promise. D. An important breakthrough.
34. In the 6h paragraph, what is mainly conveyed?
A. The public’s trust. B. The speaker’s apology.
C. The government’s mission. D. The Parliament’s appointment.
35. What is the best title of the speech?
A. Blood, sweat and tears B. No suffering, no united strength
C. Stay calm, stay optimistic D. A final victory after long suffering
第二节(共5小题,每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,选项中有两项为多余选项。
Nowadays, it’s hard to say exactly why you like someone. Scientists have spent years trying to discover the exact factors that draw one person to another. Below, we’ve listed some of their most interesting findings. You can read on for insights (深入了解). 36
Compliment (称赞) other people
People will associate the adjectives you use to describe other people with your personality. This phenomenon is called spontaneous trait transference (自发特征迁移). 37 If you describe someone else as genuine and kind, people will also associate you with those qualities. The reverse (相反) is also true: If you are constantly trashing people behind their backs, your friends will start to associate the negative qualities with you as well.
Emphasize shared value
38 This is known as the similarity-attraction effect. According to a classic study by Theodore Newcomb, Newcomb measured his subjects’ attitudes on some topics which may cause a lot of disagreement in his experiment, such as sex and politics, and then put them in a house to live together. By the end of their stay, the subjects liked their housemates more when they had similar attitudes about the topics measured.
Copy their behaviors
This strategy is called mirroring. 39 When talking to someone, try copying their body language, gestures, and facial expressions. In 1999, New York University researchers found that people were more likely to like their partner when their partner had been mimicking (模仿) their behavior.
Display a sense of humor
Research from California State University found that, regardless of whether people were thinking about their ideal friend or romantic partner, a sense of humor was really important. In fact, the study suggested that participating in a humorous task can increase romantic attraction. 40 It can make the person like you more and leave him a good impression.
A. They will cast your current friendships in a new light.
B. Use humor when you’re first getting to know someone.
C. Everyone has something in common with other people.
D. It involves subtly mimicking another person’s behavior.
E. People are more attracted to those who are similar to them.
F. Try to learn some basic strategies and skills of communication.
G. Whatever you say about other people influences how people see you.
第三部分 英语知识运用(共两节,满分45分)
第一节 完形填空(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的四个选项(A、B、C和D)中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
A year back I received a full scholarship to attend the University of San Francisco. All of my hard work had 41 . I was so excited to start a new chapter of my life at college that I was totally packed two weeks 42 it was time to leave.
Soon enough, the big 43 came. But it wasn’t like I thought. The first two weeks living in my dorm were the most difficult days of my entire life. Every night I would 44 myself to sleep. I was so homesick and I didn’t know how to cope with my sad, 45 heart.
To distract (分散注意力) myself, I 46 myself into my studies. I wanted to keep every part of my day busy and 47 so I wouldn’t think about how lonely and overwhelmed (不知所措) I felt. Soon after, I began to restrict 48 . Finally, I fell sick.
When I went home for fall break, I 49 to my mom that I was suffering from an eating 50 . She was confused, 51 she couldn’t understand my disorder. I knew she was 52 , but she didn’t know how to help. I told her i would be OK, and I went back to school.
When I went back to San Francisco, I was 53 miserable. I thought I would be OK, but I wasn’t. At that time I made the 54 decision of my entire life. I decided to take a semester 55 from school, and go to the treatment center near my house. I knew I needed my family for my 56 process. I know that it was the right decision.
Every day, I am learning. I am learning to 57 myself and accept my body. This is not easy! But I am learning. I am in a lighter place now, where I can see the 58 again, and I am much more confident in myself. If there are girls who are suffering from an eating disorder, I hope you know that there is 59 . Though you may fed alone, there are so many people who can understand your 60 . That’s why I want to share my story — to help other girls feel less alone.
41. A. made up B. left out C. poured in D. paid off
42. A. since B. before C. after D. until
43. A. day B. fun C. excitement D. prize
44. A. cry B. frighten C. starve D. remind
45. A. beating B. delighting C. broken D. annoyed
46. A. exposed B. turned C. drew D. threw
47. A. occupied B. absorbed C. lost D. devoted
48. A. time B. exercise C. food D. feeling
49. A. introduced B. announced C. admitted D. declared
50. A. matter B. disorder C. conflict D. phenomenon
51. A. but B. although C. while D. as
52. A. puzzled B. upset C. tough D. worried
53. A. ever B. well C. still D. just
54. A. strongest B. bravest C. best D. worst
55. A. on B. off C. out D. down
56. A. recovery B. graduation C. learning D. challenging
57. A. love B. change C. rid D. free
58. A. radiation B. shadow C. glare D. sunshine
59. A. company B. faith C. hope D. confidence
60. A. meaning B. concern C. struggle D. stand
第Ⅱ卷
第三部分 英语知识运用
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面材料,在空白处填入适当的内容(1个单词)或括号内单词的正确形式。
There is potentially good news for coffee-lovers 61 drinking three or more cups of coffee a day may help people live longer. Researchers suggest that drinking more coffee is linked 62 a lower risk of death, particularly from heart diseases. This study shows that people who have a daily minimum of three cups of coffee are 8-18% less likely 63 (die) from health problems than non-coffee drinkers. This is the first time that the beneficial effects of coffee on human health 64 (prove) by researchers, based on scientific figures.
Not all experts agree with the research findings. Health experts suggest that those people 65 (benefit) from drinking coffee may have more money, as a result of 66 they are able to live a 67 (health) lifestyle than non-coffee drinkers. They say concrete health benefits of drinking coffee hasn’t been proved. When 68 (refer) to the upper level of safe caffeine intake, experts say that more than 400 mg will 69 (probable) increase the risk of suffering from panic attacks, heart problems, and insomnia. Do follow the experts’ 70
(instruct) if you want to enjoy coffee more.
第四部分 写作(共两节 满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。错误涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:把多余的词用斜线()划掉。
修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意:1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
Dear Peter,
I often imagine what my life will be like in the future. Maybe I will be a photographer who involved in touring the world all year round took fancy pictures. Sometimes, there are other people traveling with me. And together, we make great work of art.
In 10 years, I live for my own. Locating in the countryside landscape, my house may not be very big but I can feel their warmth. A dog and a cat live with me. Both of them are cute, the pictures of them are exposed at WeChat Moments.
I have a wide range of interests. In my spare time, I go fishing with my friends or read books at the library. When I retire, I am a regularly guest at a local school, when I tell the students about my life of traveling the world.
In a short, I hope my life in the future is peaceful and relaxing.
Best wishes!
Yours,
Li Hua
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
假定你是李华,是一名高中学生。你最近和同学们一起参加了学校组织的社会实践。请给你的美国笔友Smith写一封电子邮件,分享一下此次社会实践的经历和感受。邮件的内容包括:
1、简单介绍此次社会实践的内容(徒步拉练25公里;参观军营,中山舰博物馆,工厂,农村)。
2、谈谈自己经历过社会实践后的收获。
注意:
1、词数100左右;
2、可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯;
3、文中不可透露具体学校和班级名称。
参考词汇:社会实践social practice;中山舰博物馆Zhongshan warship museum;军营barracks
Dear Smith,
Yours,
Li Hua