南平市初中毕业班教学质量检测月初中英语 11页

‎2019年南平市初中毕业班适应性检测 英 语 ‎（试卷满分：150分，考试试卷：120分钟）‎ 第一部分（选择题）‎ I. 听力（共三节, 20小题; 每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ 第一节听句子听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。（每个句子读两遍）‎ 第二节听对话听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。‎ ‎（每段对话读两遍）‎ 听第1段对话，回答第6小题。‎ ‎6. Whose ruler may the boy borrow?‎ ‎ A. Amy’s. B. Tim’s. C.Jecy’s.‎ 听第2段对话，回答第7小题。‎ ‎7. What’s Peter’s favorite subject?‎ ‎ A. Geography. B. Biology. C. History.‎ 听第3段对话，回答第8小题。‎ ‎8. How old is Wendy now?‎ A. 5. B. 10. C. 15.‎ 听第4段对话，回答第9小题。‎ ‎9. Where is Jerry getting news from?‎ ‎ A. On the Internet. B. On the iPad. C. On TV.‎ 听第5段对话，回答第10、11小题。‎ ‎10. How will they go to the museum?‎ ‎ A. By bus. B. By bike. C. On foot.‎ ‎11. When will they meet?‎ ‎ A. At 8:45. B. At 9:00. C. At 9:15.‎ 听第6段对话，回答第12、13小题。‎ ‎12. What game are they going to watch?‎ ‎ A. A soccer game. B. A volleyball game. C. A basketball game.‎ ‎13. Which class does Lucy think will win the game?‎ ‎ A. Class 5. B. Class 6. C. Class 7.‎ 听第7段对话，回答第14、15小题。‎ ‎14. When will Mrs. Brown stay in Sunshine Hotel?‎ ‎ A. In March. B. In April. C. In May.‎ ‎15. What kind of rooms would Mrs. Brown like to book?‎ ‎ A. Standard rooms with single bed.‎ ‎ B. Standard rooms with double beds.‎ ‎ C. Standard rooms with three beds.‎ 第三节听短文根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。（短文读三遍）‎ Plans for the coming summer vacation Name Plan Reason Wei Jie ‎16. ________ places of interest in China She likes 17. ________.‎ Xiao Jun Join a soccer summer camp He is 18. ________ of soccer.‎ Chen Ling Go to an English summer camp She is 19. ________ in English.‎ Li Hua Do something helpful for his 20. ________‎ They are busy all the time.‎ II. 单项选择 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)‎ 从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的正确答案。‎ ‎21. — Do you know ________ girl in pink?‎ ‎— She is my cousin, Sue.‎ ‎ A. a B. an C. the ‎22. — What do you want to be when you grow up, a doctor or an engineer?‎ ‎— ________. I want to be a scientist.‎ ‎ A. Neither B. Either C. Both ‎23. Work harder, ________ our life will be happier.‎ ‎ A. or B. but C. and ‎24. — How soon will the next No.3 bus come?‎ ‎— ________ about five minutes.‎ ‎ A. In B. For C. At ‎25. — I’m sorry, Miss Wang. I’ve ________ my homework at home this morning.‎ ‎— Never mind. Remember to bring it this afternoon.‎ ‎ A. forgot B. left C. lost ‎26. The story is really ________.It makes all of us laugh a lot.‎ ‎ A. serious B. boring C. funny ‎27. — Could you tell me the ________ of your English learning?‎ ‎— Sure. Practice makes perfect.‎ ‎ A. result B. secret C. education ‎28. — Have you heard that Chang’e 4 landed on the far side of the moon?‎ ‎— ________!It’s a big event in China this year.‎ ‎ A. Well B. Exactly C. Certainly ‎29. After four hours’ drive, drivers must stop ________ a rest?‎ ‎ A. have B. to have C. having ‎30. ________!There is a car coming here.‎ ‎ A. Look out B. Look for C. Look up ‎31. — Is Henry playing basketball on the playground?‎ ‎— It ________ be him. I saw him in the library a minute ago.‎ ‎ A. can’t B. mustn’t C. needn’t ‎32. — Thank you for helping me with my English.‎ ‎— ________. I hope you’ll do better in it.‎ ‎ A. Good idea B. Thanks a lot C. You’re welcome ‎33. Jim will call me as soon as he ________ to Xiamen tomorrow.‎ ‎ A. got B. gets C. will get ‎34. — You went to the library yesterday, Mike.‎ ‎— ________.‎ ‎ A. So did I B. So I did C. Neither did I ‎35. — Excuse me. I wonder ________.‎ ‎—The day after tomorrow.‎ ‎ A. when we will go to Mount Wuyi ‎ ‎ B. what we can see on Mount Wuyi ‎ C. why we will go to Mount Wuyi III. 完形填空(共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)‎ 从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入的空白处的最佳答案。‎ How did Chinese people choose the 12 animals of the zodiac (生肖)?‎ There are many stories 36 the Chinese zodiac. In one of the most famous stories, the Jade Emperor (玉皇大帝) wanted to pick 12 animals to keep his palace 37. He then ordered all the animals to race each other to the palace. The first 12 animals to arrive at the palace 38 the winners. They then became part of our calendar. ‎ However, the real history behind the Chinese zodiac is much harder to find. People used the zodiac as 39 as the Warring States Period (战国时期) (475-221BC). It has been known for 40 of years.‎ Some say the zodiac came from important animals in people’s lives at the time. Some of the animals were ones that people 41, such as the rabbit and the pig. Others were just animals 42 they admired, such as the tiger and the dragon. ‎ Others say that ancient Chinese people chose the 12 animals according to the animals’ habits, 43 people not only used the zodiac to represent (代表) different years, but also used them to tell time. ‎ Each animal 44 one shichen, or two hours. It is said that during each shichen, 45 corresponding (相应的) animal would be active. For example, the rat represents the period of time from 11 p.m. to 1 a.m. because this is when the animal would go out to look for food. ‎ ‎36. A. of B. about C. for ‎37. A. safe B. safely C. safety ‎38. A. be B. was C. were ‎39. A. late B. early C. well ‎40. A. hundreds B. thousands C. millions ‎41. A. raised B. caught C. hunted ‎42. A. who B. whom C. that ‎43. A. because B. so C. though ‎44. A. looks like B. stands for C. treats as ‎45. A. ones B. theirs C. its IV. 阅读理解（共两节，25小题；满分45分）‎ 第一节阅读下面A、B、C、D四篇短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）‎ A It’s a special bakery (蛋糕店) as the place is silent except sounds caused by walking and paying money in Guangzhou, Guangdong Province. ‎ At the gate of Silent Cake are signs that explain, “Most employees (雇员) in this bakery cannot hear or speak, so it may take a little longer for you to order and pay. Please be patient.”‎ Though without a word, people working at the bakery greet every customer with a big smile and a welcome gesture. ‎ Customers can write down their orders on notebooks, and can also use the sign language written on the boards to communicate with the employees. ‎ ‎“We haven’t heard people complain since we opened in March,” said Zeng Nan, one of the bosses of the bakery. “Customers are friendly and always wait patiently, and some even help clean tables.”‎ Silent Cake has become famous. Since its opening at the end of March 2018, the bakery has been a popular place in the neighborhood. The 40 tables at the bakery are often full at noon with a long waiting line. On the busiest day, they served over 500 customers.‎ ‎“I started the bakery because many disabled people had difficulty finding jobs. But the success is totally beyond my mind.” Zeng said. ‎ ‎“All the employees here are strong and brave. They smile through their difficulties and stand on their own feet. They are my heroes,” said Fan Xiaoyan, a customer with disabilities. ‎ ‎46. What kind of sound can you only hear in the bakery?‎ A. Eating food. B. Ordering food.‎ C. Walking and paying money. D. Chatting and singing.‎ ‎47. What will most employees do if you go into this bakery?‎ A. They will say hello to you. B. They will listen to you carefully.‎ C. They will take your order quickly. D. They will greet you with a smile.‎ ‎48. Why did the boss start the bakery?‎ A. Because he wanted to make himself rich. B. Because he wanted to help disabled people.‎ C. Because he wanted to offer special cakes. D. Because he wanted to make himself famous.‎ ‎49. Which one is NOT true according to the passage?‎ ‎ A. Some customers even help clean the desks.‎ ‎ B. Customers are not patient to wait for a long time.‎ ‎ C. Customers often write down their orders on notebooks.‎ ‎ D. Customers sometimes use sign language to communicate with the employees.‎ ‎50. How can you describe the employees after reading the passage?‎ ‎ A. Respectable. B. Common. C. Humorous. D. Famous.‎ B Last year, my husband and I moved to San Francisco. The family next to our door left their home in St. Davids for the USA three years ago. We often had afternoon tea with the Greens on weekends. One day, they talked about the differences between their old life in Britain and their new life here.‎ ‎51. How does Mrs. Green go to work in the USA?‎ ‎ A. On foot. B. By bus. C. By bike. D. By car.‎ ‎52. What does the underlined word “it” refer to? ‎ ‎ A. Baseball. B. Football. C. Swimming. D. Roller-skating.‎ ‎53. According to Sam’s words, “crisps” might look like the thing(s) in Picture________.‎ A. B. C. D. ‎ ‎54. Which of the following is TRUE according to Holly?‎ ‎ A. She used to go swimming.‎ ‎ B. She dislikes wearing school uniforms. ‎ ‎ C. Roller-skating isn’t very popular in the USA. ‎ ‎ D. The weather in St. Davids is better than that in San Francisco. ‎ ‎55. What do Holly and Sam think of their life in the USA?‎ ‎ A. They hate it. B. They miss it. C. They enjoy it. D. They worry about it.‎ C One day, you open the fridge and find some moldy (发霉的) food. But before you can throw it away, your mother stops you. She doesn’t want to waste food. She cuts off the moldy part and eats the rest. Is it safe to do this?‎ Mold (霉菌) can grow on almost all kinds of food. Mold is usually green, white, black or grey. Mold makes food soft and changes its color. Moldy food tastes quite bad – and it’s not safe to eat.‎ ‎ If you find mold in soft food, just throw it away. Soft food, such as bread, tomatoes or hot dogs, usually contains (包含) water. This allows mold to groweasily below its surface. Bacteria (细菌) can also grow along with it.‎ ‎ But it’s easy to remove mold from hard food. The mold can’t grow very deeply inside this kind of food.According to the BBC, you should cut about 2.5 cm around and below the mold to remove it. It’s OK to cut the moldy partsout of hard food and eat the rest. But if the food is completely covered with mold, you should still throw it away.‎ Most kinds of mold are bad for us. But some kinds of mold can be used to make food. For example, penicillium (青霉菌) can be used to make many types of cheeses, such as blue cheese. These cheeses are safe to eat – and they’re quite delicious as well.‎ ‎56. What’s the best way to do with a moldy tomato?‎ ‎ A. To eat it. B. To throw it away.‎ C. To cut off the moldy part. D. To boil it in hot water.‎ ‎57. Which of the following is TRUE about mold?‎ ‎ A. We can’t see it. B. It grows faster when it is cold. ‎ ‎ C. It makes the food taste bad. D. It’s more likely to grow on hard food.‎ ‎58. Whichpart do you need to cut to remove mold on hard food?‎ ‎ A. Half of the food. B. About 1.5 cm around and below the mold.‎ ‎ C. The surface of the food. D. About 2.5 cm around and below the mold.‎ ‎59. What do we know about penicillium according to the passage?‎ ‎ A. It tastes quite delicious. B. It can be used to make food.‎ ‎ C. It’s bad for our health. D. It is more likely to grow on cheese.‎ ‎60. Where is the text probably taken from?‎ ‎ A. A newspaper. B. A sports magazine.‎ C. A science fiction. D. A movie poster.‎ D China’s most famous basketball player Yao Ming may have retired (退役) from the sport, but he has continued to encourage young people with his hard work once more, this time in the classroom instead. This 38-year-old guy first entered Shanghai Jiao Tong University in 2011 and graduated on July 8, 2018.‎ Yao was born in a family of basketball players but his father andmother insist (坚持) that Yao should achieve higher education after hisbasketball career. Yao’s first day at college was a big mess, with hundreds of students waiting outside his classroom asking for photos and signatures (签名). While many students lived in the university, Yao couldn’t -there was no bed that could fit the 2.26-metre-tall guy.‎ In his commencement (毕业典礼) speech, Yao said, “If not for that promise to my father and mother, I might have given up several times, especially since I had to take Math. But over time, I came to believe that learning itself is more important than the result.” Yao also told his fellow graduates to think about what society needs while planning their next steps in life. “Try to plan your future in line with society’s development, because only by doing so will you get more room to carry on.” he said.‎ Besides his role in the basketball management, Yao is also the owner of a wine factory, a Wild Animal Aid ambassador (大使), a foundation (基金) owner that provides sports things for children in poor areas, as well as a member of the Chinese People’s Political Consultative Conference (人民政协), helping to improve the country’s physical education system.‎ ‎61. Why couldn’t Yao live in the university?‎ ‎ A. Because he is 38 years old. B. Because he is too tall.‎ C. Because he has a lot of money. D. Because there was no bed.‎ ‎62. What was Yao’s worst subject in the university probably?‎ ‎ A. Chinese. B. English. C. Math. D. PE.‎ ‎63. What’s the meaning of the underlined part “in line” in Paragraph 3?‎ ‎ A. 一致 B. 直线 C. 联系 D. 发展 ‎64. Which of the following is TRUE?‎ ‎ A. Yao’s achievements go beyond his basketball career. ‎ B. Yao first entered Shanghai Jiao Tong University at the age of 38.‎ C. Yao encouraged young people by giving them photos and signature.‎ ‎ D. Yao finished his university only because of his promise to his father and mother.‎ ‎65. What’s the best title for this article?‎ ‎ A. Yao Ming's different roles. B. A promise to change Yao Ming’s life.‎ C. Yao Ming graduates from university. D. Yao Ming gives a commencement speech.‎ 第二节阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯，意思完整。（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）‎ E Global (全球的) warming is a big problem that we have to stop. 66. ________ Trees can take in CO2 in the air and stop global warming.‎ According to a new report, China is doing a great job of “greening” the world.‎ ‎67. ________ They used a special NASA camera and discovered that global leaf area has increasedby 5% since the early 2000s. And China was responsible for 25% of that gain, according to thestudy.68. ________‎ The growth mainly came from China’s forest the protection programs, NASA said.‎ For example, since 1962, China has been planting trees in Saihanba in Hebei province.69. ________But now, China has turned the area into the country’s largest man-made forest.‎ The Chinese public has also joined in these efforts. Ant Forest, a feature (功能) in the Alipayapp, gives users points for doing eco-friendly things such as walking and going paperless in theoffice. 70. ________ When the virtual (虚拟的) trees are big enough, Ant Forest will plant real treessomewhere in the world. More than 55 million trees have been planted in this way.‎ A. It was once a desert.‎ B. One of the best things we can do is to plant more trees.‎ C. That’s about one-quarter of the size of the entire Amazon rainforest.‎ D. Users can then use these points to water and grow their own virtual trees.‎ E. A team of scientists at Boston University has been working with NASA to studyEarth’s green vegetation (植被).‎ V. 情景交际（共 5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）‎ 根据情景提示，完成下列各题。‎ ‎* 你想知道今天是星期几，你可以这样问:‎ ‎71. __________________________________________________________________________________________________________?‎ ‎* 你看到同桌不舒服时，你会这样询问：‎ ‎72. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________?‎ ‎* 你想邀请海伦今晚和你一起看电影，你可以这样说：‎ ‎73. Helen, __________________________________________________________________________________________________?‎ ‎* 你想知道那双鞋子的价格，你可以这样问：‎ ‎74. _________________________________________________________________________________________________________?‎ ‎* 你要建议Ben不要带手机去学校，你应该这样说：‎ ‎75. Ben, ______________________________________________________________________________________________________.‎ VI. 看图写话（共 5小题；每小题 2分，满分10分）‎ 根据每小题所提供的图画情景和提示词，写出一个与图画情景相符的句子。‎ ‎(this time yesterday)‎ ‎76._________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎(heavily, last night)‎ ‎77. _________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎(make, wood)‎ ‎78. _________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎(fast, than)‎ ‎79. _________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎(good, every day)‎ ‎80. _________________________________________________________________________________________‎ VII. 短文填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）‎ 阅读下面短文，根据语境、音标或所给单词的提示，在每个空格内填入一个恰当的词，要求所填的词意义准确、形式正确，使短文意思完整、行文连贯。‎ A young couple decided to go camping in the mountainsto celebrate their 81. ________ (one) year of marriage. They took with them all the things they would need to go camping— warm 82. ________ (cloth), food and a tent.‎ They went up to the mountains and83. ________ [faʊnd] the perfect place to set up their tent. After that, they decided to go 84. ________ a hike to see more of the mountains.‎ After a long hike, they went back to their camp, built a fire and cooked 85. ________ [ˈdɪnə].Finally, it was time to go to sleep.‎ Sometime in the middle of the night, the wife woke her husband 86. ________ and said, “Look up at the sky. What do you see?”‎ Her husband answered without 87. ________ (think), “I see millions of stars.” ‎ His wife said, “That’s right. What does that mean to you?”‎ The husband said, “Well, if there are 88. ________ many stars out there, that means there might also be a planet just like89. ________ (we). And if that’s true, then there could be life on one of those planets. That’s kind of exciting.”‎ His wife said, “You are 90. ________ [rɒŋ].It means that someone has stolen our tent.‎ VIII. 书面表达（满分15分）‎ ‎91. 母亲节即将到来，假如你是李华，请根据以下内容提示，写一篇80词左右的感恩信，感谢母亲给予我生命，呵护我健康成长，让母亲感受我们真挚的爱。‎ 注意：1. 文中不能出现真实的姓名和校名，开头语已为你写好；‎ ‎2. 文章必须包含所提供的主要信息，并作适当发挥。‎ Dear mom,‎ Mother’s Day is coming. I would like to say “Happy Mother’s Day” in this letter. ______________________‎ ‎_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎___________________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎___________________________________________________________________________________________________‎ Yours,‎ Li Hua 试题结束，请认真检查！‎ ‎2019年南平初中毕业班适应性检测 参考答案 I. 听音理解（每小题1.5分，共30分）‎ ‎1-5 CAACB 6-10 BCCAB 11-15 ACACB ‎ ‎16. Visit 17. traveling/ travelling18. fond 19. weak 20. parents II. 单项选择 (每小题1分，共15分)‎ ‎21-25 CACAB 26-30 CBCBA 31-35 ACBBA III. 完形填空(每小题1.5分，共15分)‎ ‎36-40 BACBB 41-45 ACABC IV. 阅读理解 (共二节，共45分)‎ 第一节(每小题2分，共40分)‎ ‎46-50 CDBBA 51-55 DACBC 56-60 BCDBA 61-65 BCAAC ‎ 第二节 (每小题1分，共5分)‎ ‎66-70 BECAD V.情景交际 (每小题2分，共10分)‎ ‎ 71. What day is it today?‎ ‎ 72. What’s wrong (with you)? / What’s the matter (with you)?‎ ‎73.Helen, would you like to go to the movies/see a film/watch a movie with me tonight?‎ ‎ 74. How much are the shoes? / How much is that pair of shoes?/What’s the price of the shoes?‎ ‎ 75. Ben, you’d better not /you shouldn’t take your mobile phone to school.‎ VI. 看图写话 (每小题2分，共10分)‎ ‎76. He was playing the violin (at) this time yesterday.‎ ‎77. It rained heavily last night.‎ ‎78. The desk is made of wood.‎ ‎79. Dick runs /ran faster than Ann.‎ ‎80. It’s good for us to do more sports / exercise every day.‎ VII. 短文填空 (每小题1分，共10分)‎ ‎81. first 82. clothes 83. found 84. for 85. dinner ‎ ‎86. up 87. thinking 88. so 89. ours 90. wrong VIII. 书面表达（满分15分）‎ Dear mom,‎ Mother’s Day is coming. I would like to say “Happy Mother’s Day” in this letter.‎ ‎ You give me life and take good care of me. Thanks for preparing breakfast for me in theearly morning. You took me to the hospital when I was sick.‎ You teach me to be brave. When I have problems with my study and life. you are patient toencourage me. Also. I have the good habit of learning with your help.‎ Thanks for everything you did for me. You are the warmest in my mind.‎ I hope you will be happy and healthy forever.‎ Yours,‎ Li Hua ‎【短文写作评分参考标准】‎ 第一档(13-15分)：能清楚地表达自己的观点和想法；语言准确、丰富、流畅，富有个性和说服力；基本无语 法错误;‎ 第二档 (9-12分)：能清楚地表达自己的观点和想法；行文比较自然，但语言表达较平淡，个性化和说服力一般， 且存在少量语法错误; ‎ 第三档 (5-8分)：观点表述不够鲜明，比较缺乏说服力；同时各种语言用法错误较多。‎ 第四档 (1-4分)：内容比较空洞或不切题，词汇和句式用法错误很多。‎