2013年山东省泰安市中考英语试题 15页

绝 密★启用前 试卷类型：A 泰安市二〇一三年初中学生学业考试 英 语 试 题 本试卷分第I卷（选择题）和第II卷（非选择题）两部分。第I卷1至9页，第II卷10至12页，共120分。考试时间120分钟。‎ 注意事项：‎ ‎1. 答题前，请考生仔细阅读答题卡上的注意事项，并务必按照相关要求作答。‎ ‎2. 考试结束后，监考人员将本试卷和答题卡一并收回。‎ 第I卷（选择题 共75分）‎ 第一部分 听 力（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）‎ ‎（一）听句子，选择适当的应答语。每个句子读两遍。‎ ‎1. A. Not at all. B. It doesn’t matter. C. You’re welcome. ‎ ‎2. A. I’m sure. B. Yes, they do. C. I don’t think so.‎ ‎3. A. I failed in my exam. B. I get up very early. C. I was swimming. ‎ ‎4. A. I’m fine, thank you. ‎ B. It’s very nice of you. Thanks a lot. ‎ C. I’m afraid you’re wrong this time. ‎ ‎5. A. What’s wrong? B. I’m sorry to hear that. C. With pleasure.‎ ‎（二）听五段对话，选择正确答案。每段对话读两遍。你将有20秒钟的时间阅读下面5个小题。‎ ‎6. What does the man want to be?‎ ‎ A. A reporter. B. An actor. C. A doctor.‎ ‎7. How much time does Jane spend on her hobbies now?‎ ‎ A. About two hours. B. About an hour. C. About half an hour.‎ ‎8. When was Jim born?‎ ‎ A. In 1992. B. In 1991. C. In 1994.‎ ‎9. Where can this conversation probably happen?‎ ‎ A. In the shop. B. At the airport. C. In the hotel.‎ ‎10. What’s Mary’s favorite sport?‎ ‎ A. Boating. B. Swimming. C. Surfing.‎ ‎（三）听两段长对话，选择正确答案。每段对话读两遍。你将有25秒钟的时间阅读下面6个小题。‎ 听第一段对话，回答11至13小题。‎ ‎11. What are they going to do? ‎ A. To get a watch. B. To go to a party. C. To stay at home.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎12. Why hasn’t Rose had her watch with her?‎ ‎ A. She has left it at home. B. She has lost it. C. It has broken down.‎ ‎13. How will they go there?‎ A. By bus. B. By taxi. C. By bike.‎ 听第二段对话，回答14至16小题。‎ ‎14. What’s the city like?‎ ‎ A. It’s fast but quiet.‎ ‎ B. It’s the same as the country.‎ ‎ C. It has more people than the country.‎ ‎15. What does Grandmother like?‎ ‎ A. Living in the city. ‎ B. Riding on trains. ‎ C. Being with her family.‎ ‎16. Which of these is TRUE?‎ ‎ A. It is loud near their house.‎ ‎ B. Grandmother never likes the city.‎ ‎ C. There’s a train station near their house.‎ ‎（四）听短文，回答下面四个问题，选择正确答案。短文读两遍。你将有20秒钟的时间阅读下面4个小题。‎ ‎17. Where can people watch their children playing?‎ A. In the fields. B. In the Gift Shop. C. In the Tea Room.‎ ‎18. What time does Park Farm open?‎ A. At 9:30. B. At 10:30. C. At 11:30.‎ ‎19. How much does a family ticket cost?‎ A. ￡15. B. ￡6. C. ￡4.‎ ‎20. What do we know about Park Farm?‎ A. It’s open only at weekend. ‎ B. It is very difficult to find. ‎ C. It is near the river.‎ 第二部分 语言知识运用（共两节, 满分25分）‎ 第一节 语法和词汇（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）‎ 从每小题A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出能填入相应空白处的最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ ‎21. —So kind of you to give me a ride to the station!‎ ‎ —______.‎ A. It doesn’t matter B. Never mind ‎ C. Don’t mention it D. My pleasure ‎ ‎22. —Do you play ______ piano in your free time?‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ —No, I like sports. I often play ______ soccer with my friends.‎ A. 不填; the B. the; 不填 C. the; the D. a; a ‎23. The food safety is a serious in our country. We should try to solve it.‎ A. subject B. program C. problem D. opinion ‎ ‎24. —Who helped you clean the bedroom yesterday, Kitty?‎ ‎ —______. I cleaned it all by myself.‎ A. Nobody B. Everybody C. Somebody D. Anybody ‎ ‎25. —Would you like some coffee, please?‎ ‎—Yes, and please get some sugar. I prefer coffee ______ sugar. ‎ A. to B. for C. with D. from ‎26. It is reported that Daimiao Culture Square in Taian next year.‎ ‎ A. will be built B. were built C. have built D. will build ‎27. Bring these flowers into a warm room ______ they’ll soon open.‎ A. or B. and C. but D. for ‎28. —May I smoke here?‎ ‎—No, you ______. This is a no-smoking room.‎ A. needn’t B. mustn’t C. couldn’t D. wouldn’t ‎29. ______ you’ve tasted it, you can’t imagine how delicious the dishes are.‎ A. Because B. Although C. When D. Unless ‎ ‎30. —Why is Linlin practicing speaking English?‎ ‎— ______ abroad for further study.‎ A. Go B. Gone C. To go D. Goes ‎31. One of the best ways for people to keep healthy is to ______ good eating habits.‎ A. grow B. develop C. increase D. find ‎32. —How are you today, Mike?‎ ‎—I’m ______ now. I don’t think this medicine is good for me.‎ A. badly B. better C. well D. worse ‎ ‎33. —Do you know whether David will go cycling or not tomorrow? ‎ ‎ —David? Never! He ______ outdoor activities.‎ A. hates B. hated C. is hating D. has hated ‎ ‎34. Liu Yang is the first Chinese woman astronaut ______ has ever traveled in space.‎ ‎ A. whom B. which C. who D. whose ‎35. —Excuse me, could you tell me where ______? ‎ ‎ —Sure, sir. You can try www.taobao.com.‎ A. can I join in the group-buying B. did I join in the group-buying ‎ ‎ C. I can join in the group-buying D. I joined in the group-buying ‎ 第二节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）‎ 阅读下面短文，掌握其大意，然后从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出能填入短文相应空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。‎ A teenage boy couldn’t stand his parents’ family rules, so he left home. ‎ He wanted to be 36 , but he had poor education and several years later, he had to ask for food on the street for a living. Now his mother has died. His father is an old man, but he is still looking 37 his son. He has been to every corner of the city. Everywhere he goes, he ‎38 a big photo of himself on the wall. At the lower part of the photo he writes, “I still love you… 39 back home!” ‎ One day, the son saw one of the photos. The face was familiar. “Is that my father?” He moved closer and read the 40 , “I still love you…” He cried. When he got home, it was early morning. He 41 at the door. The door opened itself. He rushed to his father’s 42 . His father was sleeping. He woke his father up. “It’s me! Your 43 is back home!” The father and the son held each other, full of 44 tears. The son asked, “Why is the door unlocked? A thief could get in.” The father answered 45 , “The door has never been locked since you left.”‎ The door of parents’ love of their children will never be closed.‎ ‎36. A. famous B. poor C. different D. pretty ‎37. A. through B. after C. for D. out ‎38. A. looks at B. puts up C. finds out D. puts out ‎39. A. come B. go C. run D. rush ‎ ‎40. A. photos B. words C. posters D. pictures ‎41. A. pulled B. unlocked C. knocked D. locked ‎42. A. bathroom B. bedroom C. kitchen D. toilet ‎43. A. son B. daughter C. friend D. grandchild ‎44. A. sad B. worried C. angry D. happy ‎45. A. politely B. exactly C. softly D. excitedly 第三部分 阅读理解（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中, 选出能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳选项, 并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。 ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ A Jane Goodall is a famous scientist. For more than 40 years, Goodall lived mostly in Tanzania in East Africa, studying ‎ ‎ ‎ chimpanzees. ‎ As a young child, Jane Goodall was interested in animals. She grew up in the English countryside and was always climbing trees or riding horses. ‎ When Jane was 23, she got a chance to go to Africa. Even though she had never been to college, she got a job with a famous scientist named Louis Leakey. ‎ One day Louis Leakey said he needed a volunteer. He needed someone to go to a lake in Tanzania to study a kind of chimpanzees. Jane was excited. ‎ On July 16, 1960, she began her explore(探索). At first, the chimpanzees ran away from Jane. But with time passing, they got used to her being around.‎ Every day, Jane would follow the chimpanzees, taking notes on their behavior. She learned many new things about chimpanzees. She watched how a chimpanzee made a tool. She learned how some chimpanzees became good leaders. She watched how mother chimpanzees raised their children. She watched animals get angry and get upset. She wrote everything down so others would understand animals as she did. She learned that if you pay really close attention to animals, you will understand what they are “saying”. ‎ ‎46. What is the best title of the passage?‎ ‎ A. Jane Goodall’s college life B. Jane Goodall’s family ‎ C. Jane Goodall, a famous scientist D. Jane Goodall and Louis Leakey ‎47. What is the correct order of the following according to the passage? ‎ ‎ a. Jane went to Africa.‎ ‎ b. Jane started her explore.‎ ‎ c. Jane worked with Louis Leakey.‎ ‎ d. Jane was born in the countryside. ‎ ‎ e. Jane followed chimpanzees. ‎ ‎ A. d-a-e-b-c B. b-a-c-d-e C. a-d-c-b-e D. d-a-c-b-e ‎48. Louis Leakey chose Jane Goodall as a volunteer to .‎ ‎ A. plant trees B. raise horses C. study chimpanzees D. do experiments ‎ ‎49. Jane ______ the chimpanzees’ behaviors to help others understand them.‎ A. wrote down B. took pictures of ‎ C. made videos of D. drew pictures about ‎ ‎50. From the passage we can infer(推断) that .‎ ‎ A. mother chimpanzees raise their children B. people can communicate with animals C. animals don’t get excited D. chimpanzees make tools B ‎ I am Alice. I like We chat. It is fast, convenient and fashionable. And you can use it for free. It can be used in my mobile phone. It has hold-to-talk voice messaging function. I am a fan of Leehom Wang. Through We chat, Leehom Wang often says something to me. It’s amazing.‎ ‎ I am David. I love Micro blog. I update my Micro blog when I am free. We can share instant(即时的) messages with each other. I often look through ‎ ‎ ‎ Yao Chen’s Micro blog. She has many followers. I make many friends with them. I often write something on my Micro blog, for example, “I’m in blue today. I didn’t pass the exam.” Then many friends comfort me. I share my birthday party, my new phone, my new coat, etc. with my friends. It is fun.‎ ‎ I’m Lily. I don’t like We chat or Micro blog. I don’t believe them. There are so many crimes(愚蠢行为) on We chat. Many people are cheated(欺骗) because they believe in other people they meet on We chat easily. It is not a real world. As to Micro blog, I don’t think it is a good way to make friends. And you should write something no more than 140 words. I like keeping diaries. I don’t want my secrets known by others. I am a low-key(低调的) girl.‎ ‎51. Who loves Micro blog?‎ ‎ A. Alice. B. David. C. Lily. D. Leehom Wang.‎ ‎52. What does Alice think about We chat?‎ ‎ A. It’s fast and convenient. B. It’s fashionable but slow.‎ ‎ C. It’s safe and useful. D. It’s fun but expensive.‎ ‎53. Why doesn’t Lily believe We chat?‎ ‎ A. Because many people are cheated on We chat easily. ‎ ‎ B. Because she doesn’t like to say anything to her friends.‎ ‎ C. Because she doesn’t think it is a good way to make friends.‎ ‎ D. Because she prefers keeping diaries to showing secrets to others. ‎ ‎54. Which of the following statements is NOT mentioned in the passage?‎ ‎ A. We chat has hold-to-talk voice messaging function. ‎ ‎ B. David can share his feelings instantly on Micro blog.‎ ‎ C. Lily prefers reading to writing. ‎ ‎ D. There is a word limit on Micro blog.‎ ‎55. From the passage we can learn David is .‎ ‎ A. a low-key boy B. an open-minded boy ‎ C. a stupid boy D. a lazy boy C ‎ If you want to do a school project on children’s rights(权利), you can look on the Internet for some information. A United Nations website can show you plenty of useful information for the project.‎ The United Nations lists the rights of children. Most countries agree all of them, but some countries do not. The following are some of the most important rights of children:‎ u Children have the right to be properly fed, clothed and sheltered(庇护) by their family. If their family can’t do so, the government should take responsibility.‎ u Children have the right to an education and medical care, which should be provided by the government.‎ ‎ ‎ u Children must not be cruelly punished(惩罚) by their parents or any others.‎ u Children have the right to expect the government to protect them from all kinds of abuse(虐待) and neglect(忽略).‎ u No child under fifteen should be made to fight in an army.‎ Children have the right to be protected from being made to work too hard to make money for other people.‎ In some countries children do not have these rights. Many young children are made to work long hours in factories and on farms. In some countries there are so few schools that only rich children get an education. There are not enough doctors or nurses to help many children when they are sick.‎ The rights of children are, therefore, the rights people think children should have. They are not always the rights children really have. ‎ ‎56. agree with the United Nations’ list of children’s rights.‎ ‎ A. All countries B. A few countries ‎ C. No countries D. Most countries ‎57. The underlined word “responsibility” in the passage means .‎ ‎ A. something people have to do ‎ B. something people want to do ‎ C. something people know how to do ‎ D. something people love to do ‎58. Which of the following sentences is TRUE according to the passage?‎ ‎ A. Parents should punish their children. ‎ B. Children should make money for other people.‎ C. Governments should protect children from neglect.‎ D. Children under sixteen should not fight in an army.‎ ‎59. Some children can’t get an education because .‎ ‎ A. there aren’t enough schools ‎ B. there are no schools ‎ C. they come from rich families ‎ D. they want to work in factories ‎ ‎60. What’s the main idea of this passage?‎ ‎ A. Children are made to work long hours on farms. ‎ ‎ B. The United Nations website is useful for the school project.‎ ‎ C. Children have the right to be properly fed, clothed and sheltered.‎ ‎ D. The United Nations has listed the rights it thinks children should have.‎ ‎ ‎ D Soon computer and other machines will be able to remember you by looking at your eyes! The programme works because everyone’s eyes are different. So in the future you won’t have to remember a number when you want to use a machine or take money out of a bank. You’ll just have to look at the machine and it will be able to tell who you are. The eye-recognition (眼睛识别) programme is tested in shops and banks in the USA, Britain and Italy.‎ Scientists are working on other systems, such as knowing you from the shape of your face or hand or even your smell! And machines can already tell who you are from your voice or your fingerprint (指纹). But eye-recognition will replace other ways of finding out who you are. It is better, because your eyes don’t change as you get older, or get dirty like hands or fingers. And even twins have different eyes, so the programme can be up to 94% correct, depending on how good the technology is. In Britain, it was found that 91% of people said that they liked the idea of eye-recognition. ‎ ‎61. Where has the programme for remembering eyes been tested? ‎ A. Banks and factories. B. Banks and shops.‎ C. Schools and computers. D. Schools and shops.‎ ‎62. How does the eye-recognition programme work?‎ A. You look at the machine and type a number.‎ B. You need to speak and then look.‎ C. The machine looks at your face.‎ D. You look at the machine.‎ ‎63. Which recognition technology is already in use?‎ A. Remembering eyes or smell. B. Remembering fingerprints or voices.‎ C. Remembering faces or voices. D. Remembering hands and faces.‎ ‎64. What problem could there be with the eye-recognition programme?‎ A. Some eyes are the same. B. Eyes can change.‎ C. It is not always correct. D. Eyes can get dirty.‎ ‎65. What is the advantage of the eye-recognition programme?‎ A. You needn’t remember a number. ‎ B. You needn’t take money with you.‎ C. You don’t need to look at the machine. ‎ D. People think it’s interesting.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ 试卷类型：A 泰安市二〇一三年初中学生学业考试 英 语 试 题 第II卷（非选择题 共45分）‎ 第四部分 书面表达（共三节）‎ 第一节 词汇运用（共两题，满分15分）‎ ‎（一）单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）‎ 根据句意和首字母或汉语提示，将单词的正确形式完整地写在答题卡相应的位置上。‎ ‎66. We can’t breathe f____________ air because of polluted environment.‎ ‎67. Let’s set out now since the sun has r____________. ‎ ‎68. Song Yang, a bus driver, will be remembered for having saved 33 p____________.‎ ‎69. Thomas Edison had made more than one ____________ (千) inventions in his life.‎ ‎70. It rained so ____________ (大) last night that the lake is full of water now. ‎ ‎（二）综合填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）‎ 根据短文内容，用方框中所给词语的适当形式填空，使文章通顺、完整。（每词限用一次）‎ at, hurt , realize, but, grow, they, come, strong, what, tree ‎ Once upon a time, there were four seeds who were good friends. They traveled by wind and (71) to a forest. They hid(藏) themselves in the ground, and hoped that they would be able to grow into big (72) .‎ But when the first seed began to grow, they (73) it wouldn’t be such an easy task. There lived a group of monkeys, and the smallest monkeys loved to throw bananas (74) any plant that started to grow. They threw so many bananas at the first seed that she was almost cut into two.‎ When she told the other seeds (75) happened, they thought that it would be better to wait until the monkeys went away.‎ They all agreed with that, except the first seed. She thought she would at least try it. When she tried, she was (76) by bananas. The other seeds asked her to stop trying, (77) ‎ ‎ ‎ she had made up her mind to become a tree. She tried again and again. Every time she was hit by bananas, she would try harder. The scars(伤疤) left by the bananas helped her grow (78) than the other seeds. Later, she could withstand(经受住) the hit of bananas. She had already (79) so well that the monkeys couldn’t hurt her badly.‎ At last, she grew into the biggest tree in the forest. The other seeds still hide (80) in the ground, hoping the monkeys would go away soon.‎ 第二节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） ‎ 阅读下面的短文，并根据文章后的要求答题。（请注意问题后的词数要求）‎ ‎[1] One day a lonely girl found two weak birds while she was walking in the woods. She took them home and put them in a small cage. She fed them with love and the birds grew strong. Every morning they greeted her with a beautiful song. The girl loved them very much and wanted their singing to last forever.‎ ‎ [2] One day the girl left the cage’s door open. The larger and stronger of the two birds flew out of the cage. The girl watched worriedly as it circled(盘旋) high above her. She was afraid that it would fly away and she would never see it again. So when it flew close, she grasped(抓) at it wildly. She was very happy that she held it tightly within her hand! Suddenly, she felt something had happened to the bird. She opened her hand and was surprised to find the bird was dead. Her love for the bird killed it.‎ ‎ [3] She noticed the other bird jumping in the cage. She could feel that it wanted to be free. It hoped to fly into the clear, blue sky. She lifted it from the cage and flew it into the air. The bird circled once, twice, three times …‎ ‎ [4] When the bird was flying happily in the sky, she was so glad. Just then the bird flew closer and sat softly on her shoulder. It sang the sweetest song she had ever heard. ‎ ‎ [5] The fastest way to __________ is to hold it tight. The best way to keep love is to let it fly!‎ ‎81. Why did the girl love the two birds very much? ( no more than 10 words )‎ ‎82. Which sentence in the passage can be replaced (替换) by the following one?‎ ‎ She loved the bird so dearly, however, the bird died by her own hand.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎83. Translate the underlined sentence in Paragraph 4 into Chinese.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎84. Fill in the blank in Paragraph 5 with proper words. ( no more than 2 words )‎ ‎85. What does the story want to tell us? ( no more than 10 words )‎ ‎ ‎ 第三节 写 作（共1题，满分20分）‎ 微笑是一种人生态度。请你以“Learn to Smile”为题，为你校《英语园地》写一篇稿件。‎ 内容要点包括：‎ ‎1. 学会对自己微笑；‎ ‎2. 学会对他人微笑；‎ ‎3. 微笑是一种语言。‎ 注意：‎ ‎1. 紧扣主题，表述全面、准确、流畅；‎ ‎ 2. 词数：80—100； ‎ ‎3. 文章中不要出现真实姓名和校名。‎ 参考词汇：态度attitude；自信心confidence Learn to Smile ‎__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎ ‎ 泰安市二〇一三年初中学生学业考试 英语试题参考答案及评分标准 第I卷（75分）‎ 第一部分：听 力（共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）‎ ‎1—5 BCABC 6—10 CCBCA 11—15 BABCC 16—20 ACBAC ‎ 第二部分：语言知识运用（共两节，满分25分）‎ 第一节 语法和词汇（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）‎ ‎21—25 DBCAC 26—30 ABBDC 31—35 BDACC ‎ 第二节 完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）‎ ‎36—40 ACBAB 41—45 CBADC   ‎ 第三部分：阅读理解（共20小题；每小题1.5分，满分30分）‎ ‎46—50 CDCAB 51—55 BAACB 56—60 DACAD 61—65 BDBCA ‎ ‎ 第II卷（45分）‎ 第四部分：书面表达（共三节，满分45分）‎ 第一节 词汇运用（共两题，满分15分）‎ ‎（一）单词拼写（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）‎ ‎66. fresh 67. risen 68. passengers 69. thousand 70. heavily ‎（评分要求：所填单词只要符合题意，语法正确，拼写无误，都可得分；否则不得分。）‎ ‎（二）综合填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）‎ ‎71. came 72. trees 73. realized 74. at 75. what ‎76. hurt 77. but 78. stronger 79. grown 80. themselves ‎（评分要求：所填词语只要符合题意，语法正确，拼写无误，都可得分；否则不得分。）‎ 第二节 阅读表达（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分） ‎ ‎81. Because they greeted her every morning. / Because they sang for her every morning.‎ ‎（评分要求：根据文章合理作答，与答案意思相近。）‎ ‎82. Her love for the bird killed it．‎ ‎（评分要求：准确找出以上句子，字体清楚，有抄写错误要酌情扣分。） ‎ ‎83. 看到鸟在空中自由飞翔，她万分高兴。‎ ‎（评分要求：忠于原句，语句通顺，无语言错误。）‎ ‎84. lose love ‎（评分要求：答案要与参考答案相符，且保持与上下文的连贯性。）‎ ‎85. To keep love is to let it fly.‎ ‎（评分要求：根据文章合理作答，与答案意思相近，语言准确。）‎ 第三节：写 作（共1题，满分20分） ‎ One possible version：‎ Smile is an attitude to life. We should face everything with smile. ‎ In our life, there may be something unpleasant. For example, you fail in an exam; or you are misunderstood by your friends. These things may make you feel bad. Then what will you do? Why not learn to smile? Smiling ‎ ‎ ‎ to yourself can bring back your confidence and beat the unhappy feelings. Sometimes, the greatest enemy is yourself. Most important of all, smiling benefits your health. ‎ We should also learn to smile to others, and it will help us to get closer to other people. Therefore, smile is the most widely understood language. ‎ Let’s learn to smile. I believe our world will be more wonderful and our life will be happier and happier. ‎ ‎（二）评分说明：‎ ‎1、评分原则 ‎（1）评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。‎ ‎（2）评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的数量和准确性及上下文的连贯性。‎ ‎（3）拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。‎ ‎（4）如果书写较差，以至影响交际，将分数降低一个档次。‎ ‎2、各档次的给分范围和要求 ‎ 第一档（17—20分） 很好地完成了试题规定的任务。‎ 覆盖所有内容要点；应用了较丰富的语法结构和词汇；用词准确、句子通顺、行文连贯、表达清楚，没有或基本没有语言错误；书写工整；字数符合要求。完全达到了预期的写作目的。‎ ‎ 第二挡（12—16分） 较好地完成了试题规定的任务。‎ 虽漏掉1、2个次重点，但覆盖所有主要内容；应用的语言结构和词汇虽不太丰富，但能满足任务的要求；句子较通顺、表达较清楚；有少量语言错误；书写工整；字数基本符合要求。达到了预期的写作目的。‎ 第三档（8—11分）基本完成了试题规定的任务。‎ ‎ 虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容；应用的语言结构单一；句子不够通顺，行文不够连贯；语言错误较多；书写不够工整，字数较少。整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。‎ 第四档（0—7分）未恰当完成试题规定的任务。‎ 漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容；应用的语言结构单一且不规范；句子不通顺，行文不连贯；语言错误多；书写潦草，字数不足50。信息未能清楚地传达给读者。‎ 听力录音材料 ‎（一）听句子，选择适当的应答语。每个句子读两遍。‎ ‎1. I’m afraid I may be a little late.‎ ‎2. Do you think teenagers can go out on school nights?‎ ‎3. What happened?‎ ‎4. I hope everything goes well.‎ ‎5. I’m going to the hospital, so could you look after the baby for me? ‎ ‎（二）听五段对话，选择正确答案。每段对话读两遍。你将有20秒钟的时间阅读下面5个小题。‎ ‎6. M: What does your mother do, Julia?‎ ‎ W: She’s a doctor.‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ M: Really? I want to be a doctor. ‎ ‎7. M: Jane, how long do you spend on your hobbies?‎ ‎ W: I used to spend about 2 hours, but now about half an hour. I’ve got too much work to do. ‎ ‎8. W: I was born in July 1992. What about you, Jim?‎ ‎ M: I am one year older than you.‎ ‎9. W: Good afternoon, sir. What can I do for you?‎ ‎ M: I’d like to check out, Room 501.‎ ‎ W: All right. Here’s the bill.‎ ‎10. M: What’s your favorite sport, Mary?‎ ‎ W: I like water sports. Boating is my favorite.‎ ‎（三）听两段长对话，选择正确答案。每段对话读两遍。你将有25秒钟的时间阅读下面6个小题。‎ 听第一段对话，回答11至13小题。 ‎ W: We have waited here for twenty minutes now and there still isn’t a bus.‎ M: I’m afraid we’ll be late for the party. ‎ W: What’s the time, Jack?‎ M: A quarter to seven. Haven’t you got your watch with you, Rose? Has it broken?‎ W: No, I have left it at home. ‎ M: Well, how long will it take us to get there?‎ W: I think it’s a long way to go, besides it’s beginning to rain. Why not take a taxi?‎ M: OK! Taxi can save us some time. Taxi!‎ 听第二段对话，回答14至16小题。‎ M: Do you like it here, Grandma?‎ W: Sometimes. But it’s very different.‎ M: Different from the country?‎ W: Yes. Everything here is so fast. There are so many people.‎ M: And it’s loud.‎ W: It sure is! The city sounds like a train.‎ M: That’s true.‎ W: Still, I’m happy. I’m here with your family. That’s important to me. ‎ ‎（四）听短文，回答下面四个问题，选择正确答案。短文读两遍。你将有20秒钟的时间阅读下面4个小题。‎ This weekend why not visit Park Farm, in the lovely village‎ of ‎Newhampton, for a day in the country! Come and see the farm animals, go for a walk across the fields. Afterwards, you can look around the Gift Shop or have a drink in the Black Cat Tea Room. From the Tea Room, you can watch your children ‎ ‎ ‎ playing outside. Park Farm is open every day from half past ten in the morning to five o’clock in the evening. An adult ticket costs six pounds and children between three and sixteen pay four pounds. But you can save money with a family ticket which costs fifteen pounds. To find Park Farm, follow the signs in the village. The farm is very near to the river. We look forward to seeing you soon at Park Farm!‎ ‎ ‎ ‎ ‎