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省重点高中高三月考
英 语
考生注意:
1.本试卷分选择题和非选择题两部分。满分100分,考试时间90分钟。
2.答题前,考生务必用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔将密封线内项目填写淸楚。
3.考生作答时,请将答案答在答题卡上。选择题每小题选出答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑;非选择题请用直径0.5毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上各题的答题区域内作答,超出答题区域书写的答案无效,在试题卷、草稿纸上作答无效。
4.本卷命题范围:高考范围。
第一部分 听力(共两节,满分30分)
第一节(共5小题;每小题1.5分,满分7.5分)
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C个选项中选出最佳选项。听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. How does the man probably feel?
A. Regretful. B. Nervous. C. Happy.
2. Where does the conversation probably take place?
A. At home. B. In a hospital. C. In a restaurant.
3. How much do two shirts cost?
A. $ 40. B. $ 50. C. $ 60.
4. Why does the woman want to sell her car?
A. To pay her school fees. B. To protect the environment. C. To practice riding a bike well.
5. What can we know about Jennifer?
A. She likes talking. B. She lives hard. C. She is honest.
第二节(共15小题;每小题1.5分,满分22.5分)
听下面5段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前,你将有时间阅读各个小题,每小题5秒钟;听完后,各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第6段材料,回答第6,7题。
6. What does the woman advise the man to do?
A. Go skiing with her. B. Visit Zhangjiakou together. C. Celebrate the Spring Festival.
7. What are the speakers mainly talking about?
A. A working schedule. B. A trip. C. A festival.
听第7段材料,回答第8,9题。
8. When does the woman find her suitcase lost?
A. When she got out of the toilet.
B. Before she went to the cafe.
C. After she read newspapers.
9. What is the woman asked to do at last?
A. Fill in the form. B. Leave her ID card. C. Hand in her name tag.
听第8段材料,回答第10至12题。
10. What does the man say about the topics?
A. They were disturbing. B. They were difficult. C. They were interesting.
11. What made attendants dissatisfied?
A. The restaurant they ate in.
B. The people they worked with.
C. The organization of the conference
12. What will the man do next?
A. Find an restaurant. B. Make coffee. C. Drink tea
听第9段材料,回答第13至16题。
13. What was the man's problem?
A. He failed the exam. B. He missed his old friends. C. He had no pocket money.
14. What does the man think of the dub?
A. It helped him a lot. B. It took up much of his time. C. It earned him lots of money.
15. Why does the man suggest a letter box outside the club?
A. To attract more people to visit the club.
B. To keep in touch with the woman.
C. To make the club more popular.
16. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?
A. Mother and son. B. Close friends. C. Teacher and student.
听第10段材料,回答第17至20题。
17. When will the Beijing 2022 Winter Olympic Games end?
A. On February 12. B. On February 20. C. On February 24.
18. Where was the 1980 Winter Olympic Games held?
A. In America. B. In France. C. In Russia.
19. Who won the first gold medal in Winter Games?
A. Ye Qiaobo. B. Yang Yang. C. Zhou Yang.
20. How many silver medals did China win at the 2014 Winter Olympic Games?
A. Four. B. Three. C. Two.
第二部分 阅读理解(共两节,满分40分)
第一节(共15小题;每小题2分,满分30分)
阅读下列短文,从每题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出最佳选项。
A
Four Citizen-science Projects
Climate change is difficult to handle. but this doesn't mean people are just sitting on the sidelines waiting for the unavoidable. Everyone can join in fighting climate change. Scistarter and Zooniverse are two websites that list citizen-science projects in which you can take part. Here are some of them:
·MeadoWatch
This project, out of the University of Washington, is looking at how climate change is affecting wildflowers on Mount Rainier. Volunteers collect data along hiking tracks about when wildflowers bud. flower, fruit and produce seeds. The project is also collecting photos of wildflowers from across Mount Rainier National Park.
·Great Backyard Bird Count
For four days every February, volunteers around the world count birds in 15 minutes. These observations can be made anywhere, including your own backyard. The counts provide scientists snapshots of data on where birds are found and how many there are. Since the count has been going on for over 20 years, researchers can now answer questions about how these patterns may be changing with time.
·Water Monitoring in Minnesota
Residents(居民)of Minnesota can sign up to be a volunteer water monitor for the Minnesota Pollution Control Agency. Volunteers are arranged to a lake or stream. Twice a month during the summer, they take measurements of water clarity. Those data let the government see whether water clarity has been changing over time as well as assess the health of those waterways.
·Redmap
Gretta Peel is a marine(海的)ecologist in Australia at the University of Tasmania in Hobart. She studies where marine species(物种)are moving in response to climate change. She set up a program called Redmap. It asks people to report "uncommon" marine species they've seen in Australian waters. "We wanted to have an early indication of what species were moving where they live,” she explains.
21. Which project should be most appealing to people interested in wildflowers?
A. Redmap. B. Meado Watch.
C. Great Backyard Bird Count. D. Water Monitoring in Minnesota.
22. What are you required to do if you take part in Water Monitoring in Minnesota?
A. Educate local people on bird behavior. B. Explore causes of your local climate problems.
C. Collect relevant data and even report them. D. Protect the local water from pollution.
23. What is the similarity among the four projects?
A. They are started by famous universities. B. They aim to raise environmental awareness.
C. They are mainly open to environmentalists D. They focus on fighting climate change.
B
As I was leaving the gym last week, I greeted a friend who was coming in. He responded without looking up from his phone. I stood there for a few awkward seconds, hoping for eye contact. He finally looked up briefly, apologetically, before returning to the screen. I walked on, feeling shaken.
It turns out I was phubbed, which is a term for snubbing(冷落)someone in favor of a phone. And research has found that phubbing does have negative (消极的)impacts on personal relationships, reducing the quality of communication and level of satisfaction.
Recently I've noticed that it's impossible to go out with friends and have their attention for the whole time, There're always phones on the table, and they're constantly being checked. When the slightest pause in conversation arises, or if someone gets up from the table briefly, people seize their
phones to check in with the rest of the world to see what else is going On.
It used to be that going out together was confidence-boosting solid reassurance(安慰)that another person enjoyed your company, otherwise they wouldn't accept but not now. Now, you're constantly attracting attention,competing with a portable supercomputer. When someone is looking at their phone, you're never sure if they actually want to be with you.
The modern-day equivalent of this is scrolling(滚屏)and texting. Although I didn't realize it at the time, I was trying for connection with the friend, who was attracted by it refusing to put away his phone and made me feel awful.
I don't want to be that person. I don't want my actions to make anyone feel the way I did that day. So from now on I'm going to make a point of not letting digital distractions damage the relationships I hold so dear. It's not worth it. Nothing on that screen is ever more important than the person standing right in front of me.
24. Why does the author describe his greeting with a friend in the gym last week?
A. To introduce what phubbing is. B. To show the misuse of phones.
C. To draw the readers' attention. D. To voice his opinion about phubbing.
25. What is the third paragraph mainly about?
A. Phones are bad for communication. B. Phones are used widely in the world.
C. Phubbing is making people suffer. D. Phubbing is a common phenomenon.
26. What will happen when you're snubbing someone according to the author?
A. People will enjoy your company. B. You will lose the trust of others.
C. You will damage others' confidence. D. People will feel truly connected.
27. What does the word "it" underlined in paragraph 5 refer to?
A. Being companied. B. Scrolling and texting. C. The table. D. The phone.
C
Has the volume(音量)in a restaurant ever nude you finish your meal early? If so, you're not alone. Restaurants handle diners in various ways to influence food choices and consumption, from lighting to menu to server presentation. Unfortunately for those headache-prone restaurant goers, some places also choose to turn up the tunes and the background noise.
Chef Mario Batali is often blamed for the phenomenon of ultra-loud or noisy restaurants in the 1990s, when he decided to flood the dining room with the same loud tunes he was playing in his
kitchen. And other chefs followed suit. Some restaurateurs felt a "livelier" atmosphere encouraged more customers, but a side "benefit" was quicker table turnover, thus increasing the number of people who could dine in a specific evening.
A 1985 study out of Fairfield University looked at how chewing speed varied according to the type of music being played. Although the volume level was kept the same for both musical situations, it's important to note that fast-tempo(节奏)music often gives the impression of being louder than slower music.
"A significant increase in the number of bites per minute was found, and the effect was largest for fast music," the researchers wrote in the study. So, the faster, louder music gets people to down their food more quickly, relieving the table for future customers.
There're opinions about whether or not this is a sound practice. "A restaurant that places profit above dining experience often plays loud music with a fast tempo that puts diners under pressure to eat more quickly, even if that means they're less able to enjoy their meal," writes Dr. Neel Burton in Psychology Today, adding that loud, fast music reduces appetite.
What's more, some would-be repeat diners will shy away for fear of another ultra-loud meal. The non-profit group Action on Hearing Loss found in a 2016 survey of nearly 1,500 people that 91% of those who view a restaurant as too noisy would choose not to return.
28. Why did some bosses of the restaurants favour loud music?
A. It might help attract more customers.
B. It was the favorite kind of music of them.
C. It made the restaurants softer and sweeter.
D. It could increase the popularity of their restaurants
29. What plays the most important role in the effect of music on diners?
A. Its content. B. Its length. C. Its speed. D. Its quality.
30. What is Dr. Neel Burton's attitude towards flooding restaurants with noisy music?
A. Doubtful. B. Disapproving. C. Positive. D. Uncaring
31. What could be a suitable title for the text?
A. What People Think of Loud Restaurants
B. Are Customers Made to Eat Quickly?
C. Why Loud Restaurants Are Popular Today
D. Does Loud Music Really Benefit Restaurants?
D
This may sound like a joke about a lazy person's dream job. Earn big money by staying in bed and watching TV. But this is really happening, and it's a project of NASA and two European space agencies the Institute of Aerospace Medicine at the Cologne-based German Aerospace Center and the European Space Agency. It's called Artificial Gravity Bed Rest Study, aimed at studying how the body adapts to weightlessness in space.
Scientists are seeking 12 women to spend two full months in bed in the fall at a German lab, plus an additional month there for preparation and recovery. The first 12 test subjects, all men, already have started the study.
Participants spend two entire months in bed and remain lying down even to do everyday things like eating, drinking and exercising. They also answer nature's call and shower, but it's unclear from the NASA website how those tasks are accomplished in bed.
"Daily routine showering, getting dressed, eating, exercising takes much time when you cannot stand up to do them," says the website, adding that there is "continuous data collection", including blood pressure, heart rate, nutrient absorption and also the participants' feelings. Study subjects will spend the 60 days with their heads tilted(倾斜)down six degrees, which imitates(模仿)conditions in space.
Participants are encouraged to pass the time by watching TV, taking online courses, reading and any other activities they can perform while lying down alone in bed to relieve what could be boredom. Family and friends are allowed to visit.
The high $ 18,500 payment for two months of lazing about is probably a major motivation for people willing to go through something this extreme. However, if you're an American who really needs the money, you probably can't afford it. Candidates need to travel to Cologne four times at their own expense for the employment process between April and July. Plus, they need strong German-speaking skills. Also participants need to be nonsmokers between ages 24 and 55, in good health, with normal body weight.
32. What are participants expected to do during the study?
A. Report their feelings regularly. B. Complete their daily routines in bed.
C. Keep their bodies tilted down six degrees. D. Record their physical responses every day.
33. What data about the participants will the researchers collect?
A. The changes in their weight. B. Their behaviors to weightlessness.
C. The ways they do their daily things. D. Their physical and mental reactions
34. What will be a challenge for the participants?
A. The language skills they need. B. The difficulty meeting family.
C. The possibility that they feel dull. D. The slow discovery of their health.
35. The requirements for potential participants are .
A. challenging for Americans B. tailored to thin persons
C. easy for the youth to satisfy D. suitable for most people
第二节(共5小题;每小题2分,满分10分)
根据短文内容,从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Why Radio Stations Always Start With a "K" or "W"
It seems that whenever you switch on the radio in the morning all you hear is "Time to wake up with K98.3," or "WBLS will be right back after this commercial break". 36 The majority of radio stations start with the letter "K" or "W".
All radio stations have a four-letter identification code(代码). The hosts of the show typically come up with a more catchy(易记的)station name than just the four letters, but you still hear it sprinkled in with their morning announcements and other advertisements. 37 In 1912, several countries attended a conference to discuss international radiotelegraphs. One of the things that came out of that meeting was the assignment(分配)or specific letters to identify each country's radio and television signals. 38
The letters "N" and "A" were given to military stations, but "K" and "W" were assigned out for commercial use. 39 And stations west of the Mississippi started with "K".
40 Sometimes they represent the networks that own the radio station for example, WABC, KCBS, and WTBS. Sometimes it's the actual station number, like in KTWO or KFOR. And other times it's an acronym(缩写)such as WTTW for "Windows to the World." But the station that takes home the prize for the best four-letter combination is a sports radio station out of St. Louis that chose the name KRAP.
A. The United States was given the letters W, K, N, and A.
B. The three letters after the "K" Or "W" can mean a few different things.
C. If you listen closely you'll notice that they all have something in common.
D. Radio stations east of the Mississippi River had to start their stations with "W".
E. The two letters you consistently hear date back to when people used to send telegrams.
F. There is some inconsistency since radio stations weren't required to change their name.
G. Try decoding these common acronyms that you probably never knew and figure out what they stand for.
第三部分 语言知识运用(共两节,满分45分)
第一节(共20小题;每小题1.5分,满分30分)
阅读下面短文,从短文后各题所给的A、B、C和D四个选项中,选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Celina Raddatz quit her job at a nursing home in 2014 to take care of her mother full-time who, 83, suffers from Alzheimer's.
Raddatz,57, and one of her sisters, Rosalia Lizarraga, 61, had been 41 their mother together. But as the Alzheimer's 42 , the task became too stressful for Lizarraga. The full 43 fell on Raddatz, who was determined to perform a promise she and her siblings(兄弟姐妹)had made to their 44 as children.
"When my mother was 45 , she made us promise never to put her in a nursing home." Raddatz says. "But we never thought she would get 46 like this."
Raddatz was born in Mexico. Her mother, a widow(遗婉), 47 tune children as a food seller after they moved to America. "My mom was a very 48 woman," Raddatz says. When Raddatz was growing up, her mother quit her 49 so she could stay home and keep an eye on her children. "She would take us to school and bring us home. She wouldn't let us walk 50 to school."
Raddatz and her siblings first began to notice their mother 51 in 2005 after she had a bad fall while 52 as a housekeeper. In 2006, Raddatz's mother was diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease.
"It's just 53 work. I need to care for her around the clock." But anyhow, she 54 her job at the nursing home and 55 her mother in with her. They also share a bedroom, 56 Raddatz can assist her mother when she wakes up throughout the 57 .
"It's a 58 responsibility because of the promise we made her when she was younger," Raddatz says. It used to 59 Raddatz to see families leave their relatives with this disease in a nursing home. Now she has a personal 60 for the emotional(情感上的)and physical sacrifices that caring for an elderly loved one takes.
41. A. caring for B. looking into C. arguing about D. agreeing on
42. A. existed B. returned C. disappeared D. progressed
43. A. trust B. request C. collection D. responsibility
44. A. daughter B. brother C. mother D. doctor
45. A. poor B. relaxed C. relieved D. healthy
46. A. sick B. angry C. hurt D. accustomed
47. A. served B. searched C. supported D. collected
48. A. patient B. strong C. straight D. positive
49. A. job B. study C. research D. circle
50. A. out B. back C. alone D. together
51. A. crying B. sleeping C. changing D. recovering
52. A. regarding B. working C. using D. functioning
53. A. private B. unique C. constant D. easy
54. A. did B. left C. enjoyed D. continued
55. A. moved B. called C. turned D. dropped
56. A. so B. and C. for D. but
57. A. track B. night C. orbit D. operation
58. A. personal B. national C. social D. family
59. A. warn B. pain C. comfort D. persuade
60. A. account B. purpose C. service D. appreciation
第二节(共10小题;每小题1.5分,满分15分)
阅读下面短文,在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Most of us complain(抱怨). Though we 61 (tell) never to complain, it doesn't help. A thought that isn't said out is like a seed, 62 . is being planted in the mud. It would eventually grow into a tree. Suppressing(压制)them, you will one day find that the thoughts once kept in 63 dark will start exploding inside you.
But if you bring a seed into the light, eventually you will learn to manage the thoughts you once suppressed.
Complaints actually can help people improve. In that case, you aren't 64 (real) complaining. You're giving feedback(反馈)to someone, 65 (hope) they can find ways to make themselves better.
But the 66 (differ) is that when we complain about something we are finding faults in it. When we are just finding faults in people and the situations we come across, we are just finding faults in 67 (we). Ever heard the saying "The world is just a reflection of you"? Well, it's actually true!
So, 68 (stop) this, try to consciously(有意识地)not to complain about what goes wrong. Instead, try feeling grateful 69 what went right in your day.
Slowly, as you regain conscious control of your thoughts, you will find you are more likely to see the brighter side of 70 (thing) whenever you want to complain.
第四部分 写作(共两节,满分35分)
第一节 短文改错(共10小题;每小题1分,满分10分)
假定英语课上老师要求同桌之间交换修改作文,请你修改你同桌写的以下作文。文中共有10处语言错误,每句中最多有两处。每处错误仅涉及一个单词的增加、删除或修改。
增加:在缺词处加一个漏字符号(∧),并在其下面写出该加的词。
删除:把多余的词用斜线()划掉。
修改:在错的词下划一横线,并在该词下面写出修改后的词。
注意:
1.每处错误及其修改均仅限一词;
2.只允许修改10处,多者(从第11处起)不计分。
To offer a chance for our students to keep in touch with society, last Saturday our class was organized some meaningful social practice activities. We were divided into second groups. One group went to the crossings near our school, intending to helping the traffic policemen. The another group went to collect rubbishes in Hongxing Park. Meanwhile, we introduced some simply ways of environmental protection and remind people not to destroy the beauty of nature. It was the memorable day because our behavior received praise the public and we benefited a lot from these activities.
第二节 书面表达(满分25分)
假定你是李华,你的英国朋友Mike发来邮件说他很想吃中国饺子。请你回复邮件,内容包括;
1.中国饺子非常美味;;
2.建议网上学习包饺子;
3.欢迎来中国做客。
注意:
1.词数100左右;
2.可以适当增加细节,以使行文连贯。