济南市历城区2018-2019学年七年级下学期期中考试英语试题 17页

绝密★启用前 ‎2018—2019学年第二学期期中质量检测 ‎　　　七年级英语试题（2019.04）‎ 注意事项：‎ ‎1. 本试题分为第Ⅰ卷（选择题）和第II卷（非选择题）两部分。共150分。考试用时100分钟。‎ ‎2. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、考试科目涂写在答题卡上。‎ ‎3. 第一卷为选择题，每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的正确答案标号涂黑。如需改动， 用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案。答案写在试卷上无效。‎ ‎4. 考试结束，应将本试题和答题卡一并交回。‎ 第I卷（选择题 共100分）‎ I．听力测试 （30 分）‎ A）听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。‎ ‎1. A. Do you have a baseball?‎ B. Can you play the violin?‎ C. Can she sing an English song?‎ ‎2. A. They usually exercise on weekends.‎ B. My father goes to work by bus.‎ C. I always walk to the library.‎ ‎3. A. Do you have a math class on Monday?‎ B. My teacher says English is useful for us.‎ C. She takes the subway to work.‎ ‎4. A. We have to follow the rules.‎ B. You can’t go out on school nights.[来源:学科网ZXXK]‎ C. Don’t run in the hallways.‎ ‎5. A. Are you doing your homework?‎ B. What is Uncle Wang doing now? ‎ C. Is he reading a book at home?‎ B) 听录音，从每题A、B、C三副图画中选出与听到的对话内容相符的一项。每段对话听两遍。‎ ‎6. A. B. C. ‎ ‎7. A. B. C. ‎ ‎8. A. B. C. ‎ ‎9. A. B. C. [来源:Z_xx_k.Com]‎ ‎10. A. B. C. ‎ C) 在录音中,‎ ‎ 你将听到一段对话及五个问题。请根据对话内容及问题选择正确答案。对话及问题听两遍。‎ ‎11. A. Doing homework. B. Cleaning the room. C. Going to the zoo.‎ ‎12. A. Go to school. B. Go to the zoo. C. Go to the park.‎ ‎13. A. 12:00 B. 20:00 C. 11:00‎ ‎14. A. By bike. B. By bus. C. By subway.‎ ‎15. A. Tigers. B. Pandas. C. Dogs.‎ D)在录音中，你将听到一篇短文及五个问题。请根据短文内容及问题选择正确答案。短文及问题听两遍。‎ ‎16. A.Alice.　　　 B.Jenny.　　　 C.Tony.‎ ‎17. A. Guitar. B. Violin. C. Music.‎ ‎18. A.He always sings. B.He always dances. C.He always listens.‎ ‎19. A.Relaxing.　　　　　 B.Boring. C.Interesting.‎ ‎20. A.Playing the guitar.　　　 B.Playing the piano. C.Singing.‎ II. 拼读选词 根据句意和音标从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个适当的单词。‎ ‎（5分）‎ ‎21. I watch the boat ________ / reis/ with my parents every year.‎ A. rice B. race C. red D. river ‎22. Judy is playing _________ / tʃes/ with her grandpa.‎ A. club B. classmate C. chess D. chicken ‎23. We need an English teacher to ___________ /ti:tʃ/ the children after school.‎ A. trousers B. teach C. tomato D. term ‎24. I like pandas very much, because they are __________/ 'frendli/ to us.‎ A. family B. festival C. friendly D. February ‎25. Nick and his friends want to see the ___________/im'pɔ:(r)tənt/ man.‎ A. important B. ivory C. interesting D. ice-cream III. 选择填空 从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个最佳答案。（20分）‎ ‎26. —How long does it take us to go to your hometown from here?‎ ‎ —It takes us about ____________ hour by train.‎ A. a B. an C. the D. /‎ ‎27. —Is that young lady your new teacher?‎ ‎—Yes. ____________ is my English teacher, Miss Li. ‎ A. He B. Him C. Her D. She ‎28. —Arrive here ____________ time, Jane.  ‎ ‎—OK, Ms. Wang. ‎ A.at B. on C. to D. of ‎29. —____________ do you eat lunch? ‎ ‎—At 12:00. ‎ A. What time B.Who C.Why D.Where ‎30. —Where do you go to swim in summer vacation?‎ ‎ —I often go to the ____________ with my father. ‎ A. pool B. hall C. kitchen D. library ‎31. Don’t give up, and your dream can ____________ one day. ‎ ‎ A. come on B. come true C. come back D. come out ‎32. —Do your homework ____________ and go to bed. You have to get up early tomorrow morning.‎ ‎—Yes, Mom. ‎ A.easily B. quickly C. luckily D.friendly ‎33. —What do you think of the library?‎ ‎—It’s a ____________ place. I like reading quietly. ‎ A. quiet B. funny C. terrible D. noisy ‎34. I like dancing, ____________ I don’t have enough time to practice it. ‎ A. or B. so C. but D. because ‎35. —I'm sorry, Mr. Smith. I got up late and...‎ ‎— Well, but ____________ next time.‎ A. don't be late B. keep busy C. no eating D. be late ‎36. Which sign of the following means “Don’t swim in the river”?‎ 37. ‎—Is our meeting ____________ June 23rd? ‎ ‎ —Yes, it is.‎ A. in B. at C. on D. of ‎38. —Do your parents let you watch TV? ‎ ‎—No, they don’t. They are ____________ with me. ‎ A. busy B. strict C. good D. kind ‎ ‎39. —What can I do for you, little boy?‎ ‎— I ____________ some newspapers for my grandpa.  ‎ A. bring B. read C. need D. draw ‎40.—Is Jerry good with his cousin Betty?‎ ‎—No, Jerry often ____________ with her.‎ A. plays B. fights C. talks D. dances ‎41. —____________ do you like swimming? ‎ ‎—Because it can make me healthy. ‎ A.What　 B.Why C.How　 D.Where ‎ ‎42. —Let’s go for a walk after dinner. ‎ ‎—____________. ‎ A.Thanks a lot B.You are welcome C.That sounds good D.No, you can’t ‎43. —How long does it take you to go to the bus station?‎ ‎—____________.‎ A. It’s about twenty kilometers B. I ride my bike C. It’s about half an hour by subway D. I get there quickly[来源:学科网ZXXK]‎ ‎44. —Is Alice writing a letter? ‎ ‎—____________. She is listening to music. ‎ A.Yes, she is B.Yes, she does C.No, she doesn’t D.No, she isn’t ‎45. — What traditional(传统的) food do Chinese people have in the Dragon Boat Festival? ‎ ‎—____________.‎ A. Zongzi B. Yuanxiao C. Hot dogs D. Hamburgers IV．完形填空 阅读短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能填入文章中相应空白处的最佳答案。‎ Hi, I’m Jack. I like weekends　 46 　I don’t go to school. Let me tell you what I usually do on　 47　 ? ‎ In the morning, I don’t need to get up 　 48 　. At about 9 a.m., I only have some bread for breakfast. Then I　 49 　. At about ten o’clock, I start(开始)to do my homework. My family always have a 　 50 　 lunch on Sundays. We eat for about an hour, and chicken is my favorite food. In the afternoon, I usually play 　 51 　 with my friends for two hours. It’s relaxing for 　 52　 to do sports. What about Sunday evenings? At about six o’clock, I have dinner with my 　 53　 . But sometimes we eat out. Do we watch TV in the evening? Sure. My favorite TV program(节目) is China’s Got Talent. And my parents’ is Beijing Opera. After that, I 　 54 　with my friends on the computer. We always talk about our school life. At half past ten, I have to 　 55　 because I have to get up early next day.‎ ‎46.A. because B. and C. so D. but ‎47.A. Saturdays B. Sundays C. Tuesdays D. Fridays ‎48.A. late B. well C. early D. quickly ‎49.A. get up B. eat lunch C. do exercise D. go to school ‎50.A. small B. busy C. fast D. big ‎51.A.basketball B. violin C. chess D. piano ‎52.A. her B. us C. them D. you ‎53.A. teachers B. cousins C. friends D. parents ‎54.A. show B. draw C. talk D. find ‎55.A. go home B. go to bed C. have dinner D. play games V. 阅读理解 阅读下列短文，从每题A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出一个能回答所提问题或完成所给句子的最佳答案。（30分）‎ A ‎ Tom and Mike are good friends. They are kind to children. They want to find a summer job. One day Tom tells Mike that Beidaihe Kids Summer Camp needs help with sports，music and English. ‎ Tom can play chess, play computer games, make food and clean rooms. Mike can play the violin, the trumpet, the drums and the guitar. And he is good at dancing and English. ‎ Can they join the Summer Camp?‎ ‎56.Tom and Mike want to____________.‎ A. help with the homework B. be good with children C. join the Summer Camp D. get help from the Camp ‎57.What does the Summer Camp need help with?‎ A. Flying kites. B. Sports, music and English.‎ C. Making cakes. D. Drawing pictures.‎ ‎58. Which of the following is True about Tom?‎ A. He is Mike’s brother. B. He wants to learn music. ‎ A. He is an English teacher. D. He can make food.‎ ‎59. From the passage we know Mike may teach____________.‎ A. computer games B. English C. chess D. basketball ‎60. Who can’t get the job? ‎ A. Tom. B. Mike. C. The kids. D. Tom’s friend.‎ B In my family, there are my grandparents, my parents, my brother and I. We are a happy family. My father teaches English in a school. He gets up early and works very hard every day. Sometimes he helps me with my homework. His students love him very much because he likes to help them. My mother is a writer. She stays at home writing books, cleaning the house and taking care jobs. My grandparents are old. They are not working now. They stay at home every day, reading newspapers and watching TV. They go to bed early. My brother is a student. He is in my school, too. He likes playing basketball, tennis and pingpong. I like to play soccer, pingpong and computer games. After school, we get home at 5 p.m.. We do our homework and play sports. After supper, we often help our parents with the housework.‎ ‎61.There are____________ people in the family.‎ A. five B. six C. seven D. ten ‎62. My father is a____________.‎ A. writer B. runner C. student D. teacher ‎63. My mother works ____________.‎ A. in a school B. in a hotel C. in a store D. at home ‎64. My grandparents____________.‎ A. help us with our homework B. write books C. don't have jobs now D. don't like watching TV ‎65. Both my brother and I like playing____________.‎ A. basketball B. soccer C. tennis D. pingpong C What’s happening at the same time in the world?‎ Peter is in London, the UK. It's 5 o'clock in the afternoon. He is watching TV in the living room. At the same time, Bruno in Brazil is playing soccer with his friends in the park. It's 2 o'clock in the afternoon there. It's 8 o'clock in the morning in the US now. Logan is having his breakfast. His mother always makes soup for him. Karima is in Paris, France. It's 6 o'clock in the evening and she is not at home. She is shopping with her mother in a supermarket. There's a big sale. They want to buy some bread. Sanjiv is in India(印度)．It's half past ten at night. Sanjiv is brushing his teeth. He usually goes to bed at 11p.m.. And do you know what time it is in Jinan, China now?‎ ‎66.What is Peter doing at 5 p.m.?‎ A. He is having breakfast. B. He is watching TV.‎ C. He is playing soccer. D. He is brushing his teeth.‎ ‎67.What time is it in the US now?‎ A. It's 5: 00 p.m.. B. It's 2: 00 p.m..‎ C. It's 8:00 a.m.. D. It's 6: 00 a.m..‎ ‎68.Where is Karima now?‎ A. At home. B. At school C. In a park. D. In a supermarket.‎ ‎69. According to the passage, which one is not the same as the other three? ‎ A. London. B. Brazil C. France D. India ‎70. When Logan is having his breakfast, ____________.‎ A. Bruno is playing basketball B. It's 2 p.m. in Brazil C. Logan's mother is making soup D. Sanjiv is sleeping D ‎ Good study habits(习惯) are important for all students. When you have good study habits, you’ll learn faster and find you have a good memory.‎ Do you usually study in the living room? This is not a good place for study because it is usually too noisy. You need to study in a quiet place, such as your bedroom. A quiet place will help you learn better.‎ Before you begin to study, do not forget to clean your desk. It helps you study well, too. Light is important, too. You’ll feel tired easily if there is not enough light.‎ Of all the good study habits you can develop, asking questions is the key. Just ask. No one knows everything, but we can always learn from each other by asking questions.‎ One simple but important habit is to tell yourself what you’re studying for. Putting your dream grades(理想的分数) on the wall next to your bed or computer means you’ll see and think about it every day.‎ When do you work best? Are you an early bird, a night owl(猫头鹰), or something in between? Find your most productive work time, and then plan to study at this time.‎ 71. Why is the living room not a good place for study?‎ A. Because it is too quiet. Because it is too small. ‎ B. Because it is too noisy. Because it doesn’t have the desk for study.‎ 71. According to the passage, what should you do before you study?‎ A. Clean the desk. B. Put your storybooks away. ‎ C. Drink some water. D. Wash your hands.‎ ‎73. Why should we put our dream grades on the wall?‎ A. To make us happy. B. To make our parents happy.‎ C. To make the wall beautiful. D. To remind(提醒) us what we are studying for.‎ ‎74. What is the meaning of the underlined word “productive” in Chinese?‎ A. 有效的 B. 有趣的 C. 精彩的 D. 愉快的 ‎75. What is the best title for this passage?‎ A. Study in the Bedroom B. Good Study Habits are Important C. How to Study English. D. Light is Important 第Ⅱ卷（非选择题 共50分）‎ 注意事项：‎ 请考生用0.5毫米黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡各题目指定区域内相应的位置，答案写在本试卷上无效。‎ V. 用所给词的正确形式填空，每空不限词数。（10分）‎ ‎76. Mr. Green has two small ____________(child). ‎ ‎77. My pet dog can ____________(walk) on two legs.  ‎ ‎78. Mary is good at writing _____________(story).  ‎ ‎79. Look! Those students _____________(clean) the classroom. ‎ ‎80. Would you like____________(drink) some water? ‎ ‎81. My mother washes the _____________(dish) after dinner every day.‎ ‎82. I like giraffes, because they are ____________(friend) to us.‎ ‎83. Peter, ____________(wear) your hat next time.‎ ‎84. These____________ (music) are from China.‎ ‎85. Jim can join the swimming club, because he ____________(swim) well.‎ VI. 改写句子 按括号中的要求完成改写后的句子，每空一词。（5分）‎ ‎86. Judy can play basketball very well. (改为否定句)‎ ‎ Judy ____________ ____________ play basketball very well. ‎ ‎87. We have to do our homework every day. (改为一般疑问句)‎ ‎ ____________ you ____________ to do your homework every day.?‎ ‎88. Nick is eating dinner with his friends. (对划线部分提问) ‎ ‎ ____________ is Nick ____________?‎ ‎89. The students go to school by ropeway. (对划线部分提问) ‎ ‎ ____________ ____________ the students go to school?‎ ‎90. Uncle Wang plays basketball every night. (用now改写句子)‎ Uncle Wang ____________ ____________ basketball now.‎ VII. 把下列句子翻译成英语，每空不限词数。（5分）‎ ‎91. 你善于跟老年人相处吗？‎ ‎_________________________ old people?‎ ‎92. 我通常都是早上6点半洗澡。‎ I _________________________ at 6:30 a.m.‎ ‎93. 他们的梦想能够实现吗？‎ Can their _________________________?‎ ‎94. 我们必须每天穿校服。‎ ‎ We _________________________ .‎ ‎95. 我的父母正在客厅里喝茶。‎ My parents are _________________________.‎ VIII. 补全对话 根据上下文补全对话，每空一词。（5分）‎ Frank: Hi, Alice. Do you want to (96)____________ the basketball game in the park this night?‎ Alice: I’d love to, (97)____________I can’t go out on school nights.‎ Frank: What other (98) ____________ do you have at home?‎ Alice: I have to do my homework first. And I can’t (99)____________the dirty dishes in the kitchen.‎ Frank: That’s too bad. ‎ Alice: And I have to (100)____________my room, because my mother says I can’t make my room dirty.[来源:学|科|网Z|X|X|K]‎ Frank: Wow, you do have a lot of rules. ‎ IX. 补全短文 根据上下文内容、括号里提出的特定要求, 在横线上写出适当的单词，每空一词。（5分）‎ Teachers’ Day is on September 10th. It’s a great time to say thank you to your（101）____________(表示职业的名词)!‎ You can （102）____________(一个动词) a thank-you card for your teacher, with nice colors, writing or drawings, to show your best wish.‎ In Britain, you can give a thank-you card anytime. When you need help and a friend （103）____________(一个动词)you, it’s important to say（104）____________(一个名词) . Sometimes they put a kiss on the card, by writing “ X” after their names.‎ It doesn’t matter how you say thank you, （105）____________(一个连词) only you say it. Because it tells the people you care. ‎ X.书面表达（20分）‎ 假如你叫Li Hua, 你的美国笔友Mary得知你是一名来自大山里的学生,来信想进一步了解你的一些情况。请你写一封邮件告诉她相关的信息，内容如下：‎ 1. 日常作息及活动；‎ 2. 上学、回家的方式；‎ 3. 学校与家的距离，以及上学、回家所需要的时间等；‎ 要求：‎ ‎1.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。 ‎ ‎2.不得出现真实的人名、校名、地名等相关信息。‎ ‎3. 约70个词汇。‎ Dear Mary,‎ ‎___________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎___________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎___________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎___________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎___________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎___________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎___________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎___________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎___________________________________________________________________________‎ ‎___________________________________________________________________________‎ Yours,‎ Li Hua 七年级英语期中测试 答案 ‎1-5 BCCAB 6-10 CACBA 11-15 ABACB 16-20 BCCBC ‎21-25 BCBCA ‎ ‎26-30 BDBAA 31-35 BBACA 36-40 ACBCB 41-45 BCCDA ‎46-50 ABCCD 51-55 ABDCB ‎56-60 CBDBA 61-65 BDDCD 66-70 BCDAB 71-75 CADAB 76. children 77. walk 78. stories 79. are cleaning 80. to drink 81. dishes 82.friendly 83. wear 84. musicians 85. swims 86. can not 87. Do have 88. What doing 89. How do 90. is playing 91. Are you good with 92. usually take a shower 93. dream/dreams come true 94. have to wear the school uniform 95. drinking tea in the living room ‎96watch/play 97 but 98 rules 99 leave 100 clean 101. teacher(s) 102 make 103 helps 104 thanks 105 but ‎ (书面表达) 评分标准：‎ ‎1）本大题共20分。‎ ‎2）卷面书写潦草不工整，可酌情从总得分中扣1-2分。‎ ‎3）拼写错误每两个扣1分。同样错误不重复计算。‎ ‎4) 书面表达可分为五个等级:‎ ‎ (1) 17－20分：短文内容符合话题要求，能运用丰富的词汇、短语、句式正确表达个人观点。语句流畅，书写工整，语法错误较少（1－2处语法小错），字数符合要求。[来源:学科网]‎ ‎ (2) 13－16分:短文内容基本符合话题要求，能基本正确表达个人观点。语句通顺，语言较丰富，书写工整，语法错误较少（3－4处），字数基本符合要求。‎ ‎ (3) 9－12分：短文内容基本符合话题要求，能基本正确表达个人观点。语句尚通顺，书写较工整，语法错误较多。‎ ‎ (4) 5－8分：短文内容不能紧扣话题要求，不能正确表达个人观点。语句不够通顺，语法错误较多，书写一般，字数在40词以下。‎ ‎ (5) 5分以下：短文内容不能紧扣话题要求，不能表达个人观点。词不达意，影响理解。‎