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2018 年英语中考试题及答案
第I卷
I.听力测试。(共30分)
第一节(每小题1.5分,共9分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的句子,从A、B、C三个选项中选出最恰当的答语,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
1、A.Nice to meet you, too. B. Thank you. C. Goodbye.
2、A.Don’t worry! B. Good idea! C.Hurry up!
3、A. You’re welcome. B. It doesn’t matter. C. Take your time.
4、A.That’s right. B.Take it easy. C. With pleasure.
5、A.Sorry, I won’t. B. Well done. C. Here you are.
6、A.Never mind! B. What a pity! C. Have a good time!
第二节(每小题1.5分,共9分)
听一遍。根据你所听到的对话和问题,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
7、A. By bike. B. By bus. C. On foot.
8、A. Grace. B. Alice. C. Paul.
9、A.In the library. B. In the museum. C. In the classroom.
10、A. Math. B. Chinese. C. Science.
11、A. Clever and lovely. B. Friendly and lovely. C. Friendly and clever.
12、A. At 8:00. B. At 9:00. C. At 10:00.
第三节(每小题1.5分,共6分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的长对话,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对题目的答案标号涂黑。
听第一段材料,回答第13和14小题。
13、Where did John go for a holiday?
A. To Beijing. B. To Taiwan. C. To Hong Kong.
14、How was John’s trip?
A.Boring. B. Dangerous. C.Wonderful.
听第二段材料,回答第15和16小题。
15、Who did the man buy the dress for?
A. His wife. B. His daughter. C. His sister.
16、What color did the man choose?
A. Blue. B. Yellow. C. White,
第四节(每小题1.5分,共6分)
听两遍。根据你所听到的短文内容,从A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
17、You are now listening to the results of the_____________competition.
A. music B. sports C.speech
18、Green Leaves are the__________group today.
A. best B. youngest C. tallest
19、The young man from Sunshine_______________well.
A. played the guitar B. swam C. sang
20、Summer Flowers won the__________place in the competition.
A. third 3. second C.first
II.单项选择。(每小题1分,共15分)
从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
21、I believe that_________apple a day keeps the doctor away.
A.a B. an C. the D./
22、Hua Chenyu is very popular among teenagers.He is also_______favorite singer.
A.I B. me C. my D. mine
23、-Excuse me, is there a computer room in your school?
-Yes.It’s. the fifth floor.
A. on B. in C. at D. to
24、Listen! Mr. Black________a talk on robots in the hall.
A. gives B. is giving C. will gave D. gave
25、It rained ________yesterday. I had to stay at home.
A. heavily B. quietly C. hardly D. quickly
26、The cake__________delicious. I’d like to have another one.
A. tastes B. looks C. sounds D. feels
27、_________people visited Hongyadong, Chongqing on May Day this year.
A. Thousand B.Thousands C. Thousand of D. Thousands of
28、Please__________the TV. It'’s time to go to bed.
A. turn on B. turn off C. put on D. put off
29、Their parents don’t allow them_______ in the river because it’s rally dangerous.
A. swim B. swimming C. to swim D. swam
30、You________stop when the traffic lights turn red.
A. can’t B. may C.must D. needn’t
31、My math teacher lives an active life. She looks as______as she was ten years ago.
A. young B.younger C. the youngest D. youngest
32、-Who’s the little girl in the photo, Laura?
-It’s me. This photo_________when I was five.
A. is taken B. takes C. was taken D. took
33、-How far is it from Chongqing to Guiyang?
-It’'s about two_________ride by high-speed train.
A.hour B. hour’s C. hours D. hours’
34、Lots of people exercise every morming_________bad weather stops them.
A. if B. unless C. until D. since
35、-Could you please tell me__________?
-In two weeks.
A. when did he come back B. how soon will he come back
C. when he came back D. how soon he will come back
Ⅲ.完形填空。(每小题1.5分,共15分)
根据短文内容,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个能填入相应空格内的最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
Tom worked hard in an office. But it seemed that there was little change in his life. He was unhappy and didn’t want to improve himself any more. His father, Joe, knew this and decided to have a talk with___36___.
One day, Tom and his father went for a walk after dinner._ 37___ they were walking along a
river, Tom said,“Dad, you always tell me to leam something new. To be__38__,I don’t want o make any change.
Joe looked in the river, saw a dead_39 _ and pointed at it.
“Tom, what is that over there?"
“I's a dead fish.”
“What’s the fish doing?"
It's moving down with the running water.
“But the fish is dead._ 40__can it be moving?" asked Joe.
“It’s moving as the river is moving.”
Joe turned to his son and said, “Life is__41___the river. It’s always moving and always changing. Some people don’t want to change, but their life is always changing whether thev like it not.A dead fish only moves along the river, while a living fish can control its journey. What’s you choice if you want to live a__42__life?”
This made Tom__43__his aunt who had already stopped learning and developing. And she just stayed the way she used to be, living like a dead fish.
Cuided by is_ 44__ ,Tom undestood what he sid. He did’t want to become a person like his
aunt. So he made up his mind to__45__ learning and developing himself.
36、A.you B.me C.her D.him
37、A.Once B.While C.After D.Before
38、A.honest B.happy C.quiet D.patient
39、A.bird B.dog C.duck D. fish
40、A.Who B. Which C.How D.When
41、A. in B. over C. like D. by
42、A. worse B. harder C. greener D. better
43、A. give up B. think of C. wait for D. hear from
44、A. aunt B. father C.uncle D. friend
45、A. continue B. finish C.avoid D. stop
IV.阅读理解。(每小题2分、共30分)
阅读下列材料,从A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳答案,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A
Chinese Culture Centers Abroad
We offer Chinese language courses and activities of Chinese culture.
46、The first Chinese Culture Center in Asia was opened________.
A. in July, 1988 B. on October 29. 2002
C. in December, 2004 D. on December 5,2012
47、If you want to learn Chinese painting. you can call_________.
A.230-2088547 B.0020-2-37798203
C.00822-733-8307 D.007-495-6121197
48、You can do Chinese kung fu at the Chinese Culure Center_______.
A. in Mauritius B. in Cairo C. in Seoul D. in Moscow
B
National Smile Month is the largest and longest mouth health activity in the UK. Starting in 1977,it is celebrating its 42nd birthday from May 14 to June 14 this year.
The British are known for their bad teeth because they have too many sugary( 甜的) foods and drinks. It seems that most of them don’t often show their feelings. They neither smile nor cry.But this is NOT true. The British like to smile as much as anyone else. They just don’t want to show their bad teeth.
Brush your teeth at least twice a day, cut down sugary foods and drinks, and visit the dentist often. With the three messages, the organizers(组织者)hope that a month of smiling will make people all around the UK realize the importance of good teeth and be confident enough to open their mouths to smile.
One interesting activity is for the British to enjoy the fun photos with short stories behind. Seeing the smiling faces and reading the interesting stories, everyone can’t help smiling! You’re welcome to send yours with big smiles online.
Smiling is not only good for you but also good for those around you, even if you do have a few bad teeth. This makes National Smile Month a great idea!
49、National Smile Month in the UK has had a history of______years so far.
A.5 B. l4 C.42 D.77
50、According to Paragraph 2, we learn that most of the British
A. don’t like sugary foods B. have very good teeth
C. don’t show their feelings D. like to smile in fact
51、The three messages in Paragraph 3 tell the British how to take care of their________.
A. teeth B.food C.drinks D.hands
52、National Smile Month in the UK suggests that__________.
A. the British should improve their health only this month
B. the British should show more smiles with better teeth
C. the British shouldn’t smile if they have a few bad teeth
D. the British shouldn’t have many interesting activities
C
Dear Li Hua,
How’s everything going? Congratulations on your graduation from junior high school!
I hope you have a great time during the holiday, but there is something important for you to think about- a plan for your personal growth. Here is some advice for yon
Firstly. study yourself. Understand what you like, what you value and what you want to be. In studying yourself, you check your strengths( 长处)and weaknesses. Find out what you need to prepare for vour dream job.
Secondly,write down your plan. When writing,you can try using Mind Maps (思维导图).It is a good way to help you to think more clearly. And you may find a proper way to you’re your plan out.
Thirdly ,go over your plan with your teachers, parents or friends. They may give you some advice.Think carefully about their advice and make some changes to your plan if necessary. And then you can go on with it.
Finally,__ 54__. For example, if you want to be an English teacher in the future, you should spend more time reading English books, learning more about English culture and practicing your listening and speaking from now on. You can make your dream come true only through hard work..
You may find it difficult to make the plan now. Don’t worry. All you need is just a rough(粗略的) one. Once you enter the senior high school, you’ll get a chance to make it better with the help of your teachers. And your personal growth plan may change with your age, your interests and the social development. So take your time and I believe you will grow into an excellent young man.
Best wishes!
Yours,
Li Fang
53、The underlined word“study”in Paragraph 3 probably means_______in Chinese.
A.学习 B.审视 C. 帮助 D.调查
54、Which of the following can be the missing part in Paragraph 6?
A. plan to find a job B.try to be an English teacher
C. practice English D. work hard to realize your dream
55、According to the passage, a personal growth plan in your lifetime may change with the following things except________.
A. your Mind Maps B. your age
C. social development D. your interests
56、In the letter, Li Fang mainly wants to tell Li Hua________。
A. how to spend the holiday happily B.how to prepare for his dream joy
C.how to make his personal growth plan D,how to review he plan with his frients
D
As the saying goes, “Give a man a fish, and you feed him for a day. Teach a man to fish,and you feed him for a lifetime.”This is the way the charity organization Heifer International (国际小母牛慈善组织)wants to end world hunger.
It began in the 1930s when an American farmer, Dan West, went to Spain to help people in need. He tried to feed the people with milk. But it seemed that there would never be enough milk. It made him think that what they needed was“not a cup, but a cow”.
Dan West returned to America. He worked together with some friends to find ways to end hunger. He believed giving animals and providing training would stop world hunger. With his help, Heifer International was set up.
On Heifer International’s website, you will see a list of animals like cows, chickens, pigs and even fish and bees. You can offer help by buying some animals for one certain family. Those animals will have babies. With more and more animals, these families will be able to support themselves. Once these families get better lives, they will pass on the act of kindness to others. More importantly, you are buying the resources(资源) for programs run by Heifer International to help more families.
The programs also help small-sized farms. As a rule, each farmer must give his animal’s first female(雄性) baby to another in need. Heifer International also provides training on animals health and feeding. And these farmers all agree to teach others what they have learned as another rule.
However, there is still a long way to go. The milk may run out. But if families have their own cows, they can get plenty of milk to feed themselves. The organization wants the farmers to go on
working together, helping each other and learning from each other. Maybe hunger can really be stopped.
57、According to the passage, we know that Dan West .
A. set up a team in Spain B. helped people with enough fish
C. was a Spanish farmer D. helped set up Heifer International
58、 Which of the following is NOT TRUE about the charity organization Heifer International?
A. Heifer International makes a list of animals on its website.
B. Farmers in the program must teach others how to feed animals.
C. Farmers in the program must give all the animals' babies to others.
D. Heifer Intermational provides training on animals' health and feeding.
59、If we put the passage into four parts, which of the following is the best?
(①=Para.1 ②=Para.2 ③=Para.3 ④=Para.4 ⑤= Para.5 ⑥= Para.6)
A.①;②③;④⑤;⑥ B.①;②③;④;⑤⑥
C.①②;③;④⑤;⑥ D.①②③;④;⑤;⑥
60、 The best title of this passage may be“ ”
A. Advice on Feeding Cows B.A Cow Instead of a Cup
C. The Charity Organizations D.An American Farmer
V、口语运用。(每小题1分,共5分)
阅读下面对话,从方框内7个选项中选择5个恰当的句子完成此对话,并把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
A. I'm a doctor.
B. Where are you now?
C. This is Scott Smith.
D. How will you come?
E. What's happening?
F. Stay with her and don't move her.
G. How long will I have to wait?
A: Hello! This is 911. Who is that speaking?
B: 61 Help! Help! Please help me!
A: Yes, sir. 62
B::My wife is seriously ill. She's having a heart problem.
A:Now relax, sir. 63
B:I'm on Lincoln Highway, about 15 miles from Washington Tunnel.
A:OK. I'll send an ambulance(救护车)as soon as possible.
B: 64
A: For about ten minutes.
B:All right. What should I do while waiting?
A: 65
B:0K. Thank you and please hurry.
第II卷(共55分)
VI、任务型阅读。(66- 68每小题2分69小题3分,共9分)
阅读下文井回答问题。
Reading is fun. When you read,would you like a paper book or an e-book(电子书)? Some people choose e-book, some love paper books, and others prefer reading both..
Li Ming ,a university professor(教授), is busy doing some research. So he is ofien on business. When he is at the airport or on the train, he especally loves reading e-books. He also likes reading paper books in the library for his research work. Besides, he enjoys the smell of the paper books.
What's, more, Li Ming would like to read wih his family. There is a reading time from 8:00 to 9:00 each Friday evering at home. Everyone reads and shares what they leam from the books. One Friday evening, Grandma took out an old paper book and said to her grandson, "Lei Lei, this is the first book your grandpa gave me. There is his name on the front page. Whenever I read it,I can get something new from his notes. And I can sill remember the happy life we lived together." Li Lei said," But I enjoy rending e-books. E-books need no paper. Many forests will be saved." Grandma advised. " Don't read for a long time, or your eyes will get sore.”
Diferent people have different ideas about e-books and peper books. No one knows whether e-books can replace(代替)paper books or not. Somehow, books are our friends. No matter which kind of books you choose to read, you can leam more about the world through them.
66、Do all the people prefer reading e-books?
67、 When is the reading time in Li Ming's family?
68、What does the old paper book mean to Grandma?
69、 Do you think e-books will replace paper books in your life? Why or why not?
VII、完成句子。(每空1分,共10分)
根据所给提示,完成句子。每空一词,含缩略词。
70、The boys can play chess in the afternoon.(改为否定句)
The boys chess in the afternoon.
71、We will travel to the Great Wall after the exam?(对划线部分提问)
you travel after the exam?
72、Why don’t you watch a talk show?(改为同义句)
watch a talk show?
73、不要害怕犯错误,你能从中学到很多。(完成译句)
Don’t be afraid to . You will learn a lot from them.
74、我们应该学好英语,以便能向世界讲述中国故事。(完成译句)
We should leam English well we can tell China stories to the world.
VII、短文填空。(每空2分,共16分)
根据下面短文内容,在短文的空格处填上一个恰当的词,使短文完整、通顺。
We all know that a good nigh's rest helps us stay helthy. Atfer we sleep for7 or8 hours in bed and 75 up next moming,our mind is better prepared to memorize and learn something.
But what about getting a rest during the middle of the day?
Scientists say,“Short periods of sleep, napping(小睡), may help learning and memory.Napping can help young children leam better. It can 76 help older people remember longer. ”
Take China as an example. Chinese people are used to napping after lunch.
Recently researchers made a survey among nearly 3, 000 Chinese people over 65 years old. The researchers asked them 77 they napped and for how long. They found that about 60 percent of them took a nap and they napped for 60 to 90 minutes. The research shows that napping for about an hour is the best.
However, these are the findings for those 78 the age of 65. Doctors say that napping for about an hour may be too 79 for young and healthy people. And they believe that half an hour is enough to 80 young and healthy pcople from feeling tired. By doing so, 81 will help them stay awake.
Doctors also say," If you have trouble falling asleep at 82 , take a daytime nap for less than 45 minutes and don't nap after 3 p. m. in the aftemoon.”
IX.书面表达。(满分20分)
中澳友好协会准备就“A Gift from the Heart”为题举办征文比赛,要求参赛者分享在一些特别的日子(生日、节日....)用心准备的礼物。
写作要求:
1.词数:80—120词;
2.文中不能出现自己的姓名和所在学校的名称。
参考要点:
1.介绍特别的日子;
2.分享赠送的礼物;
3.表述礼物的意义。
A Gift from the Heart
______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
第I卷(共95分)
I、听力测试。(共30分)
第一节:(每小题1.5分,共9分)
1-6 ABBCAC
第二节:(每小题1.5分,共9分)
7-12 ABACBC
第三节:(每小题1.5分,共6分)
13-16 BCCB
第四节:(每小题1.5分,共6分)
17-20 ABAC
II.单项选择。(每小题1分,共15分)
21- 25 BCABA 26--30 ADBCC 31- 35 ACDBD
III.完形填空。(每小题1.5分,共15分)
36- 40 DBADC 41-45 CDBBA
IV.阅读理解。(每小题2分,共30分)
46-48 CBD 49-52 CDAB 53 -56 BDAC 57-60 DCAB
V.口语运用。(每小题1分,共5分)
61- 65 CEBCF
第II卷(共55分)
VI.任务型阅读。(66 -68每小题2分,69小题3分,共9分)
66. No, they don't.
67. From 8:00 to 9:00 each Fiday evening.
68. I means love /missing /good memories.
69. Yes,I think so. Because e-books are easy to carry and we protect our environmnent better.No,I don't think so, Because reading paper books offers us a more real and pleasant experience and is better for our eyes.
VII.完成句子。(每空1分,共10分)
70. can't play 71. Where will 72. Why not 73. make mistakes 74.so that
(评分说明:形式、拼写错误不给分)
VIII短文填空。(每空2分,共16分)
75. wake 76. also 77. if/whether 78. over 79. long 80. stop 81. it 82. night
(评分说明:用词正确而形式错误,只给1分)
IX、书面表达。(满分20分)
One possible version:
A Gift from the Heart
It Was the last day of that tem, My elassmates were very excited st the coming holidny. But myfriend, Mike, looked unhappy because he failed the English test.
While thinking about how to cheer him up,I saw my English notebook. Although it was veryimportant for me,I decided to give it to him, He looked at me in surprise, He kncw how earefully Iook the notes, I told him thnt I could alseo help him leam Engish.
Mike has made progress with the help of my gift ,the notebook. If's not expensive but it's from myheart..
评分总则:
1.本题总分为20分,按各档次给分。
2.评分时.先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定所属档次最后在本档次内酌情给分。
3.英、美拼写均可接受。
参考要点:
1.介绍特别的日子;
2.分享赠送的礼物;
3.表述礼物的意义。
给分范围和要求:
第四档(优):(16-20分)
完全完成了试题规定的任务。
一覆盖所有内容要点。
—准确使用了丰富的词汇和语言结构。
—全文结构紧凑,有效地使用了语句间的连接成分,符合英语交际习惯,具有较强的语言运用能力。
第三档(良):(11-15分)
较好地完全完成了试题规定的任务。
一覆盖所有内容要点。
一恰当地使用了丰富的词汇和语言结构。
一恰当应用了语句间连接成分,.较好地达到了交际的目的。
第二档(中):(6-10分)
基本完成了试题规定的任务。
—没有覆盖所有内容要点。
—词汇和语言结构不能完全满足写作任务的要求。
一文章不够连贯,影响对写作内容的理解。
第一档(差):(0-5分)
未完成试题规定的任务。
—遗漏较多内容要点或写的内容与规定内容无关。
一词汇和语言结构错误较多。
—内容不连贯,无法传达有效信息。