山东省德州市2019-2020学年高一下学期期末考试英语试卷 11页

德州市2019-2020学年高一下学期期末考试 英语试题 本试卷分第I卷（选择题）和第Ⅱ卷（非选择题）两部分。‎ 注意事项：‎ ‎1.答第I卷前考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在答题卡上。‎ ‎2.选出每小题答案后,用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号框。‎ ‎3.全部答案在答题卡上完成，答在试卷上无效。‎ 第I卷（满分100分）‎ 第一部分听力（共两节，满分30分）‎ 做题时，先将答案标在试卷上。录音内容结束后，你将有两分钟的时间将试卷上的答案 转涂到答题卡上。‎ 第一节（共5小题;每小题1. 5分，满分7. 5分）‎ 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳 选项，并标在试卷的相应位置，听完每段对话后,你都有10秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅 读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。‎ ‎1. What does the man want the woman to do?‎ A. To take a bath. B. To finish his work. C. To answer the phone.‎ ‎2. Where will the speakers go tomorrow?‎ A. The hospital. B. Their home. C. The Military Museum.‎ ‎3. Why does the man complain?‎ A. The show is too boring.‎ B. The theater is too small.‎ C. The room is too noisy.‎ ‎4. What is the full fare of the flight for return?‎ A. $428. B. $648. C. $810.‎ ‎5.Where does the conversation take place?‎ A. At school. B. At a dentist's. C. At a party.‎ 第二节（共15小题;每小题1. 5分，满分22. 5分）‎ 听下面5段对话或独自o每段对话或独白后有几个小题,从题中所给的A、B、C三个选 项中选出最佳选项，并标在试卷的相应位置。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小 题,每小题5秒钟;听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。‎ 听第6段材料，回答第6至7题。‎ ‎6. What is the man busy doing these days?‎ A. Writing a novel. B. Reading a book. C. Repairing his computer.‎ ‎7. What do the speakers plan to do this evening?‎ A. To stay at home. B. To take a walk. C. To swim in the river.‎ 听第7段材料，回答第8至9题。‎ ‎8. What are the speakers talking about?‎ A. Praising their boss.‎ B. Persuading the farmers.‎ C. Building a new factory.‎ ‎9. What is the problem with the new factory?‎ A. Getting the land. B. Lacking funds. C. Being short of hands.‎ 听第8段材料，回答第10至12题。‎ ‎10. Which bus goes to the Shopping Center?‎ A. Bus No. 12. B. Bus No. 15. C. Bus No. 50.‎ ‎11. How much does the woman need to pay in total?‎ A. 90 cents. B. 105 cents. C. 120 cents.‎ ‎12. What happens to Bus No. 12 recently?‎ A. It is often delayed.‎ B. It often breaks down.‎ C. It has replaced No. 50 bus. ‎ 听第9段材料，回答第13至16题。‎ ‎13. What is the probable relationship between the speakers?‎ A. Husband and wife. B. Boss and employee. C. Brother and sister.‎ ‎14. Where did the man come back from?‎ A. The supermarket. B. His office. C. The gym.‎ ‎15. Why was the man late today?‎ A. He talked with his boss.‎ B. The gym was crowded.‎ C. He had too much work to do.‎ ‎16. Who was the woman complaining about?‎ A. Her boss. B. Her family. C. Her workmate.‎ 听第10段材料，回答第17至20题。‎ ‎17. What's the speaker's problem?‎ A. She needs to find a new job.‎ B. Her grandma needs her help.‎ C. Her parents are not at home.‎ ‎18. What's the speaker's job now?‎ A. A manager. B. A secretary. C. A farmer.‎ ‎19. Where does the speaker's grandma live?‎ A. In a small farm house.‎ B. In an old people's house.‎ C. In a flat of another city.‎ ‎20. What life does the speaker's grandma like?‎ A. Living abroad. B. City life. C. Country life.‎ 第二部分 阅读理解（共两节，满分40分） 第一节（共15小题;每小题2分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出最佳选项,并在答题卡上 将该选项涂黑。‎ A From Poland to Slovenia? Central Europe is your best destination!‎ Slovenia： Friendly farm stay Surrounded by grasslands, Dolinar farmhouse offers simple double rooms with wooden furnishings as well as larger apartments. Outside, crickets sing at sunset, and guests can help milk the goats if they wish, or even join in with haymaking.‎ Double rooms from £ 44 B&B, apartment for £70 a night. Flights as previous.‎ Croatia： Cycle Istria The Istria peninsula's coast attracts crowds of sun seekers, but travelling inland is more about hilltop villages. It is also a paradise with fresh seafood.‎ From £895 for seven-night' B&B, three dinners, cycles hire, maps and notes and luggage transfers. Jet2 ，, and TUI fly to Pula from several UK airports.‎ Czech Republic: Three-country tour Families who want to mix some urban exploration into a rural getaway might like the Families Worldwide's eight — day Prague and Tatras Adventure （for children aged 8 and over）. Crossing the Poland border, it takes in Niedzica Castle and boating in the Dunajec River Gorge.‎ From £ 1, 099 (£ 999 children） including B&B and activities, but not flights. Fly to Prague and back from Krakow.‎ Poland: High Tatra trek Between Poland and Slovakia, the High Tatras has some of the finest wilderness in Europe and is home to wolves, brown bears and golden eagles.‎ ‎£ 685 including transfers, accommodation and meals but not flights, departures June to September. Jet2, easy Jet, and Ryanair fly to Krakow from several UK airports.‎ ‎21. Which is the best choice to experience a natural life like a farmer?‎ A. Croatia： Cycle Istria B. Poland： High Tatra trek C. Slovenia： Friendly farm stay D. Czech Republic： Three-country tour ‎22. How much will he pay if a child takes the Families Worldwide's eight — day Prague and Tatras Adventure?‎ A.£ 999. B. £ 895. C. £ l,099. D. £ 685.‎ ‎23. What will you do in the High Tatra trek?‎ A. River boating. B. Milking the goats.‎ C. Wildlife observation. D. Beach sunbathing.‎ B The giraffe is the tallest animal on land. It is one of the best-known species in Africa, known for their very long necks, long legs and the brown and white patterns that cover their bodies.‎ Craig Hilton-taylor is head of the Red List program. He says there were between 152,000 and 163, 000 giraffes in 1985. But now, the number of them has fallen to about 98 , 000. “It is a huge tragedy and it's been sort of a silent disappearance that we just really haven't detected until now." Fifty years ago, groups of giraffes usually had 20 to 30 animals in them. Now, observers are only seeing six animals in a group. Until now the disappearance of the animals has not been observed closely. They live in such a wide area across Africa.‎ What is causing this decrease? Hilton-taylor says, “It is due to the effect of people, whether it's people causing loss of habitat for the species, hunting the species for food or harvesting for medicine or for wood. ”‎ He says pollution and the effects of climate change are just a few of the other problems affecting the species. Some people are moving into protected areas where giraffes and other animals live because of a lack of rain that affects food production. Sometimes the animals are killed for their meat. Also, civil wars in Africa make it more difficult to protect the animals.‎ Hilton-taylor says giraffes can be helped. “It's not too late, and we can turn things around. ” Some of the ideas that work include community involvement and tourism. Tourism, for example, provides jobs for local people. He also says there needs to be a giraffe action plan put in place to observe and survey the animals across the continent of Africa. Hilton-taylor adds that finding answers to the problems people face, like drought linked to climate change, food shortages and civil unrest, will provide answers for people to help giraffes.‎ ‎24. What does the underlined word “detected" mean in the second paragraph?‎ A. changed B. noticed C. doubted D. confirmed ‎25. Which is NOT a possible reason for the decrease of giraffes?‎ A. Civil wars in Africa. B. Loss of the habitats.‎ C. Climate change. D. Their wide living space.‎ ‎26. How can giraffes be helped according to Hilton-taylor?‎ A. By attracting more tourists to Africa. B. By stopping the global warming.‎ C. By learning more about the community. D. By moving local people away.‎ ‎27. Which might be the most suitable title for the passage?‎ A. Giraffes are changing Africa. B. Silent disappearance of giraffes.‎ C. Tourism and nature protection. D. Wildlife can be saved in future.‎ C Cameron Beck first started volunteering at the young age of 12. To his family, volunteering became part of life. The Becks would volunteer at the local food bank in California. Alongside his parents and sister, Cameron used to help select, organize, and pack food for the needy.‎ Today, Cameron spends every Saturday volunteering at Project Open Hand—a non- profit organization that mainly provides meals for sick neighbors and seniors. And it also allows these people to shop in its store.‎ Cameron first learned about Project Open Hand when he was working on Polk Street. As he passed the store on his way to and from work each day, Cameron became eager to learn more, and allowed his curiosity to fuel his passion.‎ Cameron quickly learned how Project Open Hand began with serving food to those living in San Francisco's Tenderloin neighborhood—a neighborhood many low-income or disabled people live in.‎ ‎“When I realized they've been doing this kind of work and it's providing extraordinary benefits for people in need—especially in the Tenderloin where fresh and quality food is hard to gain——I realized this was the organization I wanted to lend a hand to, "says Cameron.‎ Cameron really enjoys volunteering. “Through my day job, I serve the people in my city," says Cameron. “Sometimes, it can cause feelings of isolation, so volunteering really helps bring that social aspect into my life. ”‎ Cameron has one piece of advice for those who have never volunteered： find an organization that matches your passion and just get started. Organizations are always looking for volunteers," says Cameron. “And you'll learn about those opportunities once you open that door and reach out to the people. Just do something you love to do and enjoy doing it with others.‎ ‎28. What do we know about the Becks?‎ A. It is a volunteering family.‎ B. They ran a food bank.‎ C. It is the most famous local charity.‎ D. They all volunteered at the age of 12.‎ ‎29. What does Project Open Hand mainly serve for the needy?‎ A. Medical treatment. B. Job opportunities.‎ C. Free food or cheap life supplies. D. Surviving instructions.‎ ‎30. What does Cameron think of volunteering?‎ A. It is a win-win activity. B. It makes him feel lonely.‎ C. It satisfies his curiosity. D. It helps him with his study.‎ ‎31. What does Cameron suggest according to the last paragraph?‎ A. Doing whatever one likes. B. Taking part in social activities.‎ C. Finding volunteering partners. D. Trying one's best to volunteer.‎ D Israeli and Russian astronaut scientists grew the small piece of beef from cells while going aboard the International Space Station, 400 km above the Earth's surface. Cells from cattle were harvested on our planet and brought to the space station where they were grown into meat using a special 3D printer.‎ The experiment was run on September 26 within the Russian part of the space station and organized by Aleph Farms, a beef company on Earth.‎ Researchers said the project was aimed to show how lab-grown meat can be cultivated （培养）in hard conditions with minimal equipment. The technique they developed could be used to provide astronauts with hamburgers in the future.‎ ‎“We are proving that cultivated meat can be produced anytime, anywhere and in any conditions said Aleph Farms' boss Didier Toubia. “We can provide a powerful solution to produce the food closer to the population's needs, at the exact and right time it is needed.‎ To grow the meat, scientists copied the natural process of muscle cells' regeneration occurring inside the body of cattle. It required the use of a 3D bioprinter, which sticks live cells together to create something looking like real meat.‎ Lab-grown meat looks and tastes like the real thing, but it is produced without the need for lots of water, feed or land for animals and without the need to kill them.‎ ‎“In space, we don't have 10, 000 or 15, 000 liters of water to produce I kg of beef," Mr Toubia said. “This joint experiment marks an important step toward realizing our dream of making food safe for generations to come, while protecting our natural resources.‎ ‎32. What is the purpose of the project of growing beef in space?‎ A. To invent a 3D printer.‎ B. To show hard conditions in space.‎ C. To grow more plants in space.‎ D. To cultivate lab-grown meat for astronauts.‎ ‎33. What makes lab-grown meat different from natural meat on Earth?‎ A. Its taste is better. B. It is healthier.‎ C. It comes from best animals. D. It consumes less energy.‎ ‎34. What is Mr Toubia's attitude to the joint experiment?‎ A. Supportive. B. Doubtful. C. Negative. D. Worried.‎ ‎35. What problem does the passage mainly talk about?‎ A. How do astronauts eat in space?‎ B. Do plants need less water in space?‎ C. Are space hamburgers becoming real?‎ D. Is beef easier to store in space?‎ 第二节（共5小题;每小题2分，满分10分）‎ 根据短文内容，从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项 涂黑。选项中有两项为多余选项。‎ The Slow Food Movement started in Rome, Italy in 1986. When a new McDonalds was opening near a beautiful historic place, some people stood outside the restaurant and shouted, “We do not want fast food, we want slow food!"‎ This event wasn't the only thing that started the Slow Food Movement. 36 But the food didn't taste the same as he remembered. He learned that the peppers were shipped from abroad because the prices were low. This deeply concerned Carlo.‎ Carlo wanted people to care about where their foods came from and how their foods made their culture special. So he started a group to encourage this idea. It soon became the Slow Food Movement. 37 ‎ First, what is good food? Good food is fresh. The vegetables are eaten close to the place where they are grown. The fish hasn't been sitting for days before it is eaten. Good food is seasonable. 38 Good food satisfies the senses. It should look good, smell good and taste good. And finally, good food is cultural food. Each country has special foods that make it different.‎ Second, food should be clean. Today, there are great concerns about the way people grow and produce food. Farmers use chemicals to kill insects and feed plants. But the chemicals can also harm the natural environment around farms. 39 Clean food means food that does not harm our bodies or the environment.‎ And third, food should be fair. 40 All people should be able to purchase healthy food. The people who grow and make food should be paid fairly for their work. They should work in safe, healthy conditions.‎ A. Food should not cost too much money.‎ B. Its goal is to have good, clean, fair food for all people.‎ C. Over time, they can cause health problems in people too.‎ D. That was how the Slow Food Movement got rid of fast food.‎ E. It should be grown at the best time of the year for that food.‎ F. Today the Slow Food Movement has already expanded out of Italy.‎ G. One day Carlo Petrini went to a restaurant to eat a traditional meal.‎ 第三部分 英语知识运用（共两节，满分40分）‎ 第一节 完形填空（共20小题;每题1.5分，满分30分）‎ 阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的四个选项（A、B、C和D）中，选出可以填入空白处 的最佳选项,并在答题卡上将该项涂黑.‎ More than a birthday dinner The other day my daughter and I went out for dinner to celebrate her birthday. We went to a place she loves. The 41 is on top of a hill. And when we 42 , the sun was setting behind the mountains.‎ The kind waitress 43 us at the door and 44 that we would have to wait a very long time for our 45 because it was short-staffed. She said that it could be over an hour before we got our dishes. Well, we decided that we would 46 because she strongly advised that we should!‎ We stood outside 47 what to do next when the owner came out and 48 that we stay! So we went back in. The waitress was 49 We waited about an hour before we got our foods!‎ But do you know what? It was OK because we had tea and we enjoyed a great 50 and a lot of laughs. In the end, the 51 was beautiful in so many ways. Everyone dining there knew that the owner and staff were struggling.‎ We were all facing this together and everyone seemed to be very 52 and appreciative. When we were leaving we gave the waitress a piece of Dove chocolate. Even before I could 53 to her what it was, she burst into 54 ! She explained that she was a high school student from overseas and was having a hard time 55 school and work and didn't have many friends.‎ As she held the Dove 56 to her heart, she said we had no idea how much it 57 to her. We were all in tears. Shortly afterwards, the cook came out to apologize for the 58 and we told him that everything was perfect. No apologies were 59 In fact, we were so 60 for everything. It couldn't have been better!‎ ‎41. A. palace B. temple C. restaurant D. church ‎42. A. waited B. started C. arrived D. stopped ‎43. A. collected B. met C. drove D. laughed ‎44. A. failed B. learned C. reminded D. admitted ‎45. A. meeting B. song C. order D. painting ‎46. A. accept B. leave C. agree D. stay ‎47. A. finding B. deciding C. welcoming D. wondering ‎48. A. insisted B. refused C. warned D. forced ‎49. A. wrong B. helpful C. right D. kind ‎50. A. conversation B. party C. film D. coffee ‎51. A. impression B. scenery C. place D. experience ‎52. A. lively B. understanding C. generous D. anxious ‎53. A. point B. refer C. want D. explain ‎54. A. laughter B. noises C. tears D. excitement ‎55. A. dealing with B. depending on C. looking for D. leading to ‎56. A. next B. close C. opposite D. just ‎57. A. paid B. increased C. cost D. meant ‎58. A. delays B. lists C. bills D. dishes ‎59. A. pleasant B. suitable C. necessary D. painful ‎60. A. sorry B. grateful C. ready D. regretful 第II卷（满分50分）‎ 第二节（共10小题;每小题1分，满分10分）‎ 阅读下面材料，在题后空白处填入适当的内容（每空一词）或括号内单词的正确形式。‎ Lego is a company that makes toys in Denmark in Northern Europe. Lego's toys 61 （make） of plastic but Lego does not want customers to throw away Legos which they do not use anymore. It is testing a way to reuse Legos.‎ Customers in the U. S. can go to 62 (it) website. On the website, they can print a label(标签)for the mail. Then, customers can put their used Legos in a box and mail them back to Lego for free.‎ Lego says once they get the box in the mail, they 63 (clean )the toys. Then they will give the 64 ‎ ‎ (collect) Legos to Teach For America, a charity, which will donate the Legos to schools across the country. The toy company will wait to see if the test is 65 (good) than before. If it is. Lego may expand the program into other 66 (country).‎ The company usually tells its customers to keep their Legos 67 give the toys to others. When thrown away, plastic does not 68 (total) break down. It can't become 69 natural part of the soil. Instead, it breaks into tiny pieces. Birds and other wildlife might eat these pieces, 70 is bad for their health. Lego is trying to find other materials to take the place of plastic.‎ 第四部分 写作(共两节，满分40分)‎ 第一节 翻译句子(共5小题;每小题3分，满分15分)‎ 根据汉语意思，使用括号内英语单词或短语提示翻译句子.‎ ‎71.感到尴尬和羞愧，我不能专心于任何事情。(concentrate)‎ ‎72.他翻译这篇文章有些困难。(trouble)‎ ‎73.就是在教室里他睡着了。(It is. .. that)‎ ‎74.我怀疑这是否是他想要的。(doubt)‎ ‎75.一起做饭给了我们一个放松的机会。(chance) 第二节书面表达(满分25分)‎ 假如你是李华，你想在班里组织一个英语阅读社团(Club)。你的英国朋友Jack非常喜 欢文学，请你给Jack写一封邮件，内容包括：‎ ‎1.征求他的建议；‎ ‎2.请他介绍英文阅读经验；‎ ‎3.邀请他通过网络参加社团活动。‎ 注意 1.词数100左右;格式已给出，不计入总词数；‎ ‎2.可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。‎ Dear Jack,‎ ‎. .‎ ‎. .‎ ‎. .‎ ‎. .‎ Yours,‎ ‎ Li Hua